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1When all of the other gods [a] have come together,
the Lord God judges them
and says:
2"How long will you
keep judging unfairly
and favoring evil people?
3Be fair to the poor
and to orphans.
Defend the helpless
and everyone in need.
4Rescue the weak and homeless
from the powerful hands
of heartless people.
5"None of you know
or understand a thing.
You live in darkness,
while the foundations
of the earth tremble. [b] 6"I, the Most High God, say
that all of you are gods [c] and also my own children.
7But you will die,
just like everyone else,
including powerful rulers."
8Do something, God!
Judge the nations of the earth;
they belong to you.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------
The Mormonism thread got me to thinking about this chapter.
What does "gods" mean here?
The 1st verse says "the other gods": This probably refers to the gods of the nations that God defeated, but it could refer to God's servants (angels) in heaven or even to human rulers. But verse 6 says we are all gods...???
Last edited by jeffncandace; 07-27-2007 at 12:39 PM..
One referance book that I have refers to the gods in this verse as "judges" In that time, the judges held the power of life and death over just about everyone.
And then, there was among the Egyptians (and some Romans) that their leaders were desended from the gods of old. They were considered gods.
We don't know exactly when the Psalms were written. It's possible that the Egyptian influence is there.
Read the Psalm again and think about it in terms of whether or not he is talking about an earthy power of some sort. Judge, Pharoh, Caesar or whatever. I think it's a matter or what might have be the interpretation for those times.
One referance book that I have refers to the gods in this verse as "judges" In that time, the judges held the power of life and death over just about everyone.
And then, there was among the Egyptians (and some Romans) that their leaders were desended from the gods of old. They were considered gods.
We don't know exactly when the Psalms were written. It's possible that the Egyptian influence is there.
Read the Psalm again and think about it in terms of whether or not he is talking about an earthy power of some sort. Judge, Pharoh, Caesar or whatever. I think it's a matter or what might have be the interpretation for those times.
Interesting and highly probable in my mind, but then again, he did specifically use the word gods, not judges, which he could have simply said if that was the meaning intended.
Just so everyone knows I have no preconcieved idea that I am trying to convey in this thread--but the chapter in question raises some interesting questions, IMO, so I felt it might make for interesting discussion.
We are indeed all gods, by manner that we can assume certain capabilities of our God. We have freewill and self-awareness. We have the ability to judge good and evil. But our judgement is flawed by our own limited perception.
I think that Psalm is calling out to us to beware, that while we judge others with seeming impunity, we will also stand judgement.
Re-reading the Psalm makes me think Padgett2 is on to something regarding judges. Every civilization has some sort of judicial activity. Perhaps this warning of final judgement is meant specifically for them.
In this case, wouldn't it be wonderful if we knew exactly what the original meaning was?
Those were the days when those in power were held in some sort of awe. They were considered 'above' the common folk. I think 'Judge' might be more of the understanding as the verse implies that they did things among the people. Pharohs and Caesars probably wouldn't have bothered with dealing with those they felt were of the lower classes.
It's pure spectulation.
We really have no way of understanding how the people of that day would have understood the word.
In this case, wouldn't it be wonderful if we knew exactly what the original meaning was?
Those were the days when those in power were held in some sort of awe. They were considered 'above' the common folk. I think 'Judge' might be more of the understanding as the verse implies that they did things among the people. The 'gods' would probably been above bothering with the lower classes.
It's pure spectulation.
We really have no way of understanding how the people of that day would have understood the word.
Well, the belief in multiple gods was very common in that day, and that is the terminology used... I don't believe in literal gods but I do find this bit of scripture to be curious.
Its meaning in Psalm 82:6 does not imply that men are gods. It rather refers specifically to the fact that God has appointed judges to act in a dignified, God-like manner in their God-appointed responsibilities..The words, "Elohim" (God)," and "Yahweh" (Lord), are the two major names of God in the Old Testament. It is Elohim that is used here in verse 6. "Elohim (God) takes His stand in His own congregation; He (God) judges in the midst of the Elohim (corrupt judges who are acting like Gods--said in sarcasm..IMHO
NIV: VERSE 6-"I said ,"You are gods",you are all sons of the Most High.
gods here is referring to judges or magistrates,who are the ministers of God's providence,for keeping up order and peace and in particularly punishing evil-doers and in protecting others that do well.Good princes and good judges who mean well are under Divine direction; and bad ones who mean ill,are under Divine restraint. The authority of God is to be submitted to,in those governors whom his providence places over us.
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Why am I not surprised Jeff would post this?
This is one of many reasons I dislike the "new" versions so much. In any event, yes "gods" means judges. Padgett2, had a fairly good explanation. In a correct version verse seven reads, "But all of you shall die as men..." not "just like everyone else."
You need to note that "But all of you shall die as men..." We are NOT little gods and to believe so is blasphemous!
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