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"My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Matthew 27:46
Now Christians are oft to cite the alleged death bed confessions of atheist but these reported last words of Jesus raise in mind an interesting question. Did Jesus have a "death bed" realization that his delusion about being the son god finally give way to reality?
"My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Matthew 27:46
Now Christians are oft to cite the alleged death bed confessions of atheist but these reported last words of Jesus raise in mind an interesting question. Did Jesus have a "death bed" realization that his delusion about being the son god finally give way to reality?
It's basically from Psalm 22.
Psalm 22:
1. My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
7. All who see me mock me;
they hurl insults, shaking their heads.
8. “He trusts in the Lord,” they say,
“let the Lord rescue him.
15. My mouth is dried up like a potsherd,
and my tongue sticks to the roof of my mouth;
16. Dogs surround me,
a pack of villains encircles me;
they pierce my hands and my feet.
18. They divide my clothes among them
and cast lots for my garment.
They all can be descriptions about Jesus Christ when He's on the cross.
Christians usually said that there's a short separation between God the Father and the Son. From my own speculation however, He's actually defining the characteristic of death such that every dead man will be able to tell that He actually experienced a human's death. To put it short, being forsaken is a normal feeling of a true human death.
"My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" Matthew 27:46
Now Christians are oft to cite the alleged death bed confessions of atheist but these reported last words of Jesus raise in mind an interesting question. Did Jesus have a "death bed" realization that his delusion about being the son god finally give way to reality?
Why would the Christians, who wrote and edited the idolized book, not realize that Jesus (Who is in their minds is God and his own son) had asked himself why he forsook himself? Jesus is Quoting Psalm 22:1 in order to set his own mind at ease to the misfortunes he was enduring thanks to his cultist and seditious activities.
Quote:
It is not surprising therefore to find that the Hebrew Bible contains a passage with the same wild lion imagery that happens to be missing from a Greek text of this Psalm that was preserved and copied by a later generation of Christians:
Like a lion they are at my hands and my feet
In place of this Hebrew verse the Greek translation of this Psalm (which has been the work of Christian, not Hebrew, scribes) reads: “They pierced my hands and my feet”. “Pierce” has replaced “Like a lion”.
From the context, "like a lion at my hands and feet," it is talking about female lions and how they hold down their prey. Indeed, Christians (mostly descendants of pagan Gentiles) only WISH their religions were true and Messiah David is talking about people such as them who hurled wiccans into lakes and said "Let God save them."
The most likely translation would be "They lion my hands and feet" since the word is clearly a verb, not a noun, in the Hebrew.
It would make no sense for theifs and usurpers to "Pierce" King David on his hands and feet unless it was also to incapacitate him, but then what about the rest of the lion/dog/bull metaphors?... perhaps as the people of Israel removed his executive powers and lowered the size of government (thus "piercing" his hands and feet) he just wanted to whine and complain and make the priests be on his side.
Most likely, though, he is comparing his Jewish opponents to lions, his weak foreign opponents to dogs, and his powerful foreign opponents to bulls.
LYING FOR JESUS as always.
Psalms is about David... as much as Christians wanted to compare rabbi Joshua to Messiah David, Psalms is talking only about David and his pitiful complaints for his "transcendental" god.
Last edited by LuminousTruth; 09-23-2012 at 11:30 PM..
7. All who see me mock me;
they hurl insults, shaking their heads.
8. “He trusts in the Lord,” they say,
“let the Lord rescue him.
I guess they were right, and it would appear that he thought the same or at least until god didn't send in the calvary.
Here's my problem, according to Mark 8:31-33 Jesus predicts his own torture and death, so surely he had to know what is store for him. So,
"Christians usually said that there's a short separation between God the Father and the Son. From my own speculation however, He's actually defining the characteristic of death such that every dead man will be able to tell that He actually experienced a human's death. To put it short, being forsaken is a normal feeling of a true human death."
doesn't make much sense to me.
By the way, it is just as human to welcome death particularly those who have suffered long terminal diseases, torture or other long enduring suffering particularly those who hold to Christian beliefs of life after death.
It seems amusing now, but I was originally wondering whether Jesus actually said those words. It wasn't until I found out that they were a quotation from Slams that I realized how absurd it was that Jesus being tortured to death would quote a bit of poetry. It was obvious that this was something (in the Roman Historical tradition) put into Jesus' mouth more to show how the writer was thinking.
While I had originally wondered whether the line showed that Jesus had been expecting to be saved but had begin to believe that he had been abandoned to die, I had to start thinking what the evangelist was trying to convey by this quote. What I am left with is the 'meat puppet' idea which is central to Mark and Matthew particularly - that Jesus was a man animated to do his miracles and teachings by the spirit of God which had descended to inhabit his body at the Jordan and which then drove him like some bipedal golf-buggy into the desert.
What more likely than that the synoptic originator wanted to show that God's Spirit, having wangled the Lamb onto the cross as a blood -sacrifice now abandoned the carnal container with a theatrical display of veil - ripping and returned to heaven, leaving the body flopped on the nails.
But, just to make sure that the idea of the Spirit leaving the Bod, some sort of clarifying comment was needed so a quick rummage through the OT for some suitable quote produced the bit of out of context Psalms.
There are of course some problems with that explanation. Apart from Believers simply not wanting to credit it.
It's are human conception of power- God is so powerful he can make himself powerless. Christ had to live out the fully human life...The other line that is more important is when Christ asks this father in heaven...DO I have to drink of this cup...He was also the son of man- genetically descended from every human being that ever lived...He was about to feel the horror and every sorry that every human being had suffered- at all once....This great cup of bitterness was the swallowing of all sin and misery....of course he was afraid and in horrible pain....still the translation of the statement is in question....Christ suffered as a human- and we humans all the trillions that came before will all utter those words....and wonderment of that is divine betrayal...we do not understand the divine....also....He may have been talking about his own father- Joesph..who was by then a man of influence...who was too late in coming.....I believe that Joesph of Arimathea was not his uncle but was his dad that came to claim the body-
The tradition of writing a likely - sounding speech to put into the mouth of Boadicea or some other figure, rather than leave them without a speech.
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