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Jesus explicitly states that the only good one is god, and not him.
And yes it is in context.
Religious dogmatists will make up all manner of nonsensical rationalizations to evade your point cupper3. Don't bother giving their silly dodges the respect of consideration.
Religious dogmatists will make up all manner of nonsensical rationalizations to evade your point cupper3. Don't bother giving their silly dodges the respect of consideration.
Or maybe he should actually read what is printed there without reading his assumptions into the text.
The statement being discussed does not solve the problem of whether or not Jesus identified himself as god.
It is certainly open to interpretation. It could mean that only god is good and Jesus is saying that as a consequence they shouldn't call him god, or it could mean that Jesus is wanting the apostles to make the proper assumption...that if they think he is good, and only god is good, therefore he must be god.
Throughout the New Testament, there are no unambiguous passages where Jesus settles this question clearly, he never comes right out and states..."I am god" nor does he ever make it clear that he isn't.
10:18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good?there is none good but one, that is, God.
He's asking them why THEY called him good. He claimed in scripture to be God...he knew he was God...and was making the point that if they were calling him "good"...they were calling him God. There were several passages in the Gospel of John alone where he said "I AM" -- alluding to God's calling himself "I AM" to Moses. At one point the Pharisees even picked up stones to stone him because he claimed to be God. He claimed it, and they knew it.
10:18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good?there is none good but one, that is, God.
I have to say that I wonder whether this isn't a 'David's son' point. The point of David's son seems to say that the messiah can't be the son of David. That is odd unless the reader is invited to understand that Jesus as man is the son of king David (his line), but David (by prophecy) says that the Lord (God) said something to David's Lord (the messiah in heaven), who is Jesus.
Thus, I wonder whether the idea is that the reader is invited to understand that that if Jesus is called 'Good', and only God is 'Good', then Jesus must be God. Or at least inhabited by the spirit of God.
Of course, as the quote is from Mark, he might be saying that he isn't God. Interesting discussion point?
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