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Old 08-07-2017, 09:00 AM
 
Location: Southern Oregon
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Quote:
Originally Posted by TRANSPONDER View Post
That's something I'll have to check up. I'd heard that the Hebrews were Amorites and the Canaanites were not. It it likely that the Hebrews, depending on Canaan for their pottery and so on, would use the forms when they replaced the Canaanites, just as they used their script.

I'll see what the latest discoveries indicate.
Look into the idea I cam across recently that the Hebrews are an amalgam of two strains and the merger of two similar myth traditions. Something about the Egypt tradition and the sea people. Interesting, but I'm too lazy to follow up on it.
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Old 08-07-2017, 09:37 AM
 
28,432 posts, read 11,580,220 times
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Originally Posted by nateswift View Post
Look into the idea I cam across recently that the Hebrews are an amalgam of two strains and the merger of two similar myth traditions. Something about the Egypt tradition and the sea people. Interesting, but I'm too lazy to follow up on it.
yeah, no need to for me. Its a commonsense notion. Its a safe bet that newer stuff was built on older stuff. All the way back to the first human waking up in the middle of a jungle thinking 'wtf".

Normal, rational, people will use the same notions to live as safely as possible. Just like any other group of animals have similar traits. Due to the complexity of the brain, degrees of freedom if you will, "safer" has some variations through time.
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Old 08-07-2017, 10:43 AM
 
Location: S. Wales.
50,088 posts, read 20,723,660 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by nateswift View Post
Look into the idea I cam across recently that the Hebrews are an amalgam of two strains and the merger of two similar myth traditions. Something about the Egypt tradition and the sea people. Interesting, but I'm too lazy to follow up on it.
Yes...if I get the time, I'll have a look. There's a heavy Egyptian influence in Phonecia, as one would expect as a major trading partner. As for the sea peoples., the only people who are definitely related are the Philistines (Late Helladic II style pots in Philistine graves) and so far as we know the Hebrews didn't run into them until after they'd been fighting the Moabites and Edomites for a while.

And Arach's Captain Obvious remarks on the implications of stratfication are not too much help, either.
Attached Thumbnails
Were the Canaanites wiped out?-sowise.jpg  
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Old 08-10-2017, 01:00 PM
 
18,250 posts, read 16,924,631 times
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Originally Posted by BaptistFundie View Post
If you're an ancient Israelite living under the Law, better hop to it.

Thankfully though, we have a new Covenant. We no longer have to be obedient to the Law and the Commands given to the Israelites in the desert because Jesus makes his followers righteous by faith.
Hmmm.... Jesus said, "Till heaven and earth pass away, not one jot or tittle of the Law shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled" Matthew_5:18

So either the Law is still in effect and Jews should "hop to it" exterminating the rest, OR the Law in NOT in effect, in which case Jesus was lying. Which is it?

wait. Let me guess: "The Law IS still in effect. We just don't have to obey it." Was I close?
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Old 08-10-2017, 01:06 PM
 
18,976 posts, read 7,020,934 times
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Originally Posted by thrillobyte View Post
Hmmm.... Jesus said, "Till heaven and earth pass away, not one jot or tittle of the Law shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled" Matthew_5:18

So either the Law is still in effect and Jews should "hop to it" exterminating the rest, OR the Law in NOT in effect, in which case Jesus was lying. Which is it?

wait. Let me guess: "The Law IS still in effect. We just don't have to obey it." Was I close?
Romans 10:4. Jesus fulfilled the Law for righteousness. So no--we don't have to fulfill it to please God.

Nor am I a Jew that God made that covenant with.
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Old 08-11-2017, 04:44 AM
 
Location: US
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Originally Posted by BaptistFundie View Post
Romans 10:4. Jesus fulfilled the Law for righteousness. So no--we don't have to fulfill it to please God.

Nor am I a Jew that God made that covenant with.
Fullfill doesn't mean completed...It is part of a hebraic idiom...
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Old 08-11-2017, 04:58 AM
 
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Old 08-11-2017, 06:58 AM
 
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Originally Posted by Richard1965 View Post
Fullfill doesn't mean completed...It is part of a hebraic idiom...
I agree. But since it's fulfilled, we no longer have to worry about fulfilling it. And that's good...because we can't.
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Old 08-13-2017, 09:15 AM
 
Location: US
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Originally Posted by BaptistFundie View Post
I agree. But since it's fulfilled, we no longer have to worry about fulfilling it. And that's good...because we can't.
Has Torah, in fact, been explained correctly?...Killing Torah means to twist and misinterpret or explain it incorrectly, fullfill means to explain Torah correctly...
"Fulfill the Law" as a Rabbinic Idiom

It will help us greatly to know that the phrase "fulfill the Torah" is a rabbinic idiom that is still in use even today. The word we read as "law" is torah in Hebrew, and its main sense is teaching, guidance and instruction, rather than legal regulation. It is God's instructions for living, and because of God's great authority, it demands obedience and therefore takes on the sense of "law." The Torah is often understood to mean the first five books of the Bible, but also refers to the Scriptures in general. In Jesus' time, and among Jews today, this is a very positive thing - that the God who made us would give us instructions for how to live.1 The rabbis made it their goal to understand these instructions fully and teach people how to live by it.

The translation of "to fulfill" is lekayem in Hebrew (le-KAI-yem), which means to uphold or establish, as well as to fulfill, complete or accomplish.2 David Bivin has pointed out that the phrase "fulfill the Law" is often used as an idiom to mean to properly interpret the Torah so that people can obey it as God really intends. The word "abolish" was likely either levatel, to nullify, or la'akor, to uproot, which meant to undermine the Torah by misinterpreting it. For example, the law against adultery could be interpreted as specifically against cheating on one's spouse, but not about pornography. When Jesus declared that lust also was a violation of the commandment, he was clarifying the true intent of that law, so in rabbinic parlance he was "fulfilling the Law." In contrast, if a pastor told his congregation that watching x-rated videos was fine, he would be "abolishing the Law" - causing them to not live as God wants them to live. Here are a couple examples of this usage from around Jesus' time:

If the Sanhedrin gives a decision to abolish (uproot, la'akor) a law, by saying for instance, that the Torah does not include the laws of Sabbath or idolatry, the members of the court are free from a sin offering if they obey them; but if the Sanhedrin abolishes (la'akor) only one part of a law but fulfills (lekayem) the other part, they are liable. - What Does It Mean to "Fulfill the Law"?
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Old 08-13-2017, 03:38 PM
 
Location: SE corner of the Ozark Redoubt
8,918 posts, read 4,652,086 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard1965 View Post
...

The translation of "to fulfill" is lekayem in Hebrew (le-KAI-yem), which means to uphold or establish, as well as to fulfill, complete or accomplish.2 David Bivin has pointed out that the phrase "fulfill the Law" is often used as an idiom to mean to properly interpret the Torah so that people can obey it as God really intends.
...
No problem. Pretty obvious to me that you and David Bivin are wrong and Paul the Apostle was right.

1 Cor 1:23
Quote:
but we preach Christ crucified, a stumbling block to Jews and folly to Gentiles
Scripture is final authority, and I don't have a problem with that.
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