Dead Missionary Proves Beyond Shadow of Doubt Jesus is Imaginary (Christians, believe)
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And by "anything" you would mean "anything that manifests noticeable effects within 5 days after exposure"
That's right. And is why Quarantine is a fortnight as I recall. If a traveller came back from an infection area. You wouldn't do it going Into a country, though come to think of it it might be an idea to require each traveller to take a health -check before they were allowed in
They know the language? Then how have they been isolated and murderous towards all foreigners who are all unwelcome for 3,000 years?
Now I'm confused.
The reason for the hostility May be that there was contact (by the colonial British, I'm sorry to say) that would have left a very poor impression. That may have been Andaman and Nicobar Islands rather than N. Sentinel, but there may have been contact there, too. On the other hand, they may just be pugnacious bastards..There's a short vid..I'll try to find it.
No historical references to the existence of Jesus? Actual historians, whether they themselves are believers, consider the Gospels themselves to be the best historical sources for the existence of Jesus.
Many historians recognize they are not good as source material, recognizing them for allegorical hagiography. Even those who accept there was an historical Jesus.
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Originally Posted by Mike555
Historians more or less evaluate the historical worth of the New Testament documents as they do any other ancient historic work.
No, they use criteria found nowhere else in the practice of history.
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Originally Posted by Mike555
The gospels being anonymous? In a formal sense that is true since the names of the writers don't appear in the text. However, every single extant gospel manuscript contains as the heading - 'According to Matthew, Mark, Luke, John.'
Which is evidence they were NOT written by those people, as "according to" is saying they are based on those people, not written by them. "According to" means they are 2nd hand at least.
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Originally Posted by Mike555
There is absolutely no reason to assume that those headings weren't on the earliest manuscripts which are no longer extant.
Apart from "According to", which is a strange title. The fact that they are all given this same strange title tells us they were all assigned the title at the same time. Some historians say this was around 150 AD or later, when the basic canon was thrown together (possibly to refute Marcionism).
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Originally Posted by Mike555
If those headings weren't added until sometime in the second century then why are there no competing traditions regarding who wrote the gospels?
How do we know there were no competing traditions?
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Originally Posted by Mike555
''After this Jesus character supposedly lived?'' Almost every scholar who engages in Jesus studies acknowledges that Jesus lived and was crucified by order of Pontius Pilate.
Based on bad arguments.
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Originally Posted by Mike555
The idea of mythicists that an historical Jesus never existed is not validated by the evidence that historians regard as valid.
Notice the amount of appeal to Authority? A Mike 555 favourite. of course you do as you note the appeal to Authorities that agree with him.
But as to the authorship of the gospels - why should there be multiple authorship even if fraudulent? We have non -gospels of Peter, Thomas, Mary, Judas. They are not accepted as really written by those people, yet none of them have multiple authorship. Somebody wrote a gospel, stuck some disciples' name on and Bingo. That was what it was called
Your argument fails to distinguish between those who die for a cause because of second hand beliefs about something which they themselves didn't witness, and those who die for a cause because they themselves were eyewitnesses to that which they proclaim.
Which is a 2nd century AD or later claim by Christians. Who can not get the basic details correct. Neither do any of the stories say the apostles died for their Christian belief.
There is a wide range of opinion among scholars concerning the dating of the four Gospels. The date of AD 70 is not the view of all scholars. And again, a very good case can be made for an early date in the early 60's.
And 60 years later. Basically we simply do not know.
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Originally Posted by Mike555
Show you where in Mark Jesus calls himself God? Sure. I'll show you in both Matthew and Mark where Jesus says that he is God. In both Matthew 26:64 and Mark 14:62 when the high priest Caiaphas asked Jesus if he was the Christ, the Son of God/Son of the Blessed One, Jesus responded with a statement that Caiaphas understood full well as did any Jew at that time as Jesus claiming to be God.
Except in Matthew, Jesus is deflecting the question. And the first quote of Mark 14:62 (by Origen) also has Jesus deflecting the question with 'you have said that I am. Our version of Mark 14:62 is probably not original, but a correction from later Trinitarians.
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Originally Posted by Mike555
Historians recognize that the Gospels themselves are the best historical sources about what the church believed about Jesus.
Yes, what some 2nd century AD Christians believed. The Christians from the 1st century AD had different ideas.
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Originally Posted by Mike555
Your arguments are weak and have little weight to them. But we both know that you are going to continue to go 'Nuh uh' and I don't feel like spending any more time arguing with someone who has no intention of even trying to be objective.
Christians today don't know what to believe about Jesus.
There is one who believes Jesus did not exist. He is also a historian (although he studied theology). His name his Thomas Brodie. Maybe Mike has never heard of him.
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