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Old 09-19-2014, 02:36 PM
 
Location: Florida -
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There is considerable discussion about the Bible, based on the assumption that everyone has the same understanding of these terms: "Inspired," "Inerrant" and "Infallible". I'm probably as prone to making this assumption as anyone, yet, I realize that my own definition of these terms is not always entirely clear or consistent.

Further, I wonder if these conditions are always mutually inclusive or if one or more can occur without the other/s.

(This thread is not about 'what one believes other people think' or about assigning 'labels' or even agreeing/disagreeing with each other. It is more about establishing and discussing our diversity of thought in this matter).

How do you define the terms "Inspired", "Inerrant" and "Infallible"

Do you believe one or more of these conditions can occur without the other/s?


Thanks for your input.
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Old 09-19-2014, 03:22 PM
 
Location: El Paso, TX
33,229 posts, read 26,434,639 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by jghorton View Post
There is considerable discussion about the Bible, based on the assumption that everyone has the same understanding of these terms: "Inspired," "Inerrant" and "Infallible". I'm probably as prone to making this assumption as anyone, yet, I realize that my own definition of these terms is not always entirely clear or consistent.

Further, I wonder if these conditions are always mutually inclusive or if one or more can occur without the other/s.

(This thread is not about 'what one believes other people think' or about assigning 'labels' or even agreeing/disagreeing with each other. It is more about establishing and discussing our diversity of thought in this matter).

How do you define the terms "Inspired", "Inerrant" and "Infallible"

Do you believe one or more of these conditions can occur without the other/s?


Thanks for your input.
Hi Jg. You're right. It is important to define terms. Two people might use the same words but have entirely different definitions regarding those words.


As far as the term 'inspiration' is concerned, I always appeal to 2 Timothy 3:16.
2 Tim. 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;
The word translated as 'inspired' is the Greek word theopneustos which means 'God-breathed.' This means that the Scriptures originated with God who with regard to the original autographs communicated His message to the human writers of the scriptures and so superintended these writers that they wrote without error. This does not mean dictation, although in some cases dictation is involved. Therefore, inspiration applies to the original autographs and refers to the divine origin of the Scriptures.

'Inerrancy' simply means that the Bible is truthful in all that it says.

'Infallibility' means that the original autographs as written by the human writers of the Scriptures under the superintentance of the Holy Spirit are incapable of error and deception and therefore must be true. Since God is truth His word is incapable of being in error. Infallibility therefore implies inerrancy.

Last edited by Michael Way; 09-19-2014 at 03:32 PM..
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Old 09-19-2014, 03:25 PM
 
18,172 posts, read 16,392,470 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post
Hi Jg. As far as the term 'inspiration' is concerned, I always appeal to 2 Timothy 3:16.
2 Tim. 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;
The word translated as 'inspired' is the Greek word theopneustos which means 'God-breathed.' This means that the Scriptures originated with God who with regard to the original autographs communicated His message to the human writers of the scriptures and so superintended these writers that they wrote without error. This does not mean dictation, although in some cases dictation is involved. Therefore, inspiration applies to the original autographs and refers to the divine origin of the Scriptures.

'Inerrancy' simply means that the Bible is truthful in all that it says.

'Infallibility' means that the original autographs as written by the human writers of the Scriptures under the superintentance of the Holy Spirit are incapable of error and deception and therefore must be true. Since God is truth His word is incapable of being in error.
Yes and while copies may have some errors in a few things, none change the message nor the important issues contained in Scripture.

In one verse it may mention 70 and another 72, so what, as the copies are not inspired or inerrant. The messages contained IN the copies are. No so-called error changes the message in any way.
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Old 09-19-2014, 03:54 PM
 
Location: Elsewhere
88,564 posts, read 84,755,078 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post
Hi Jg. You're right. It is important to define terms. Two people might use the same words but have entirely different definitions regarding those words.


As far as the term 'inspiration' is concerned, I always appeal to 2 Timothy 3:16.
2 Tim. 3:16 All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;
The word translated as 'inspired' is the Greek word theopneustos which means 'God-breathed.' This means that the Scriptures originated with God who with regard to the original autographs communicated His message to the human writers of the scriptures and so superintended these writers that they wrote without error. This does not mean dictation, although in some cases dictation is involved. Therefore, inspiration applies to the original autographs and refers to the divine origin of the Scriptures.

'Inerrancy' simply means that the Bible is truthful in all that it says.

'Infallibility' means that the original autographs as written by the human writers of the Scriptures under the superintentance of the Holy Spirit are incapable of error and deception and therefore must be true. Since God is truth His word is incapable of being in error. Infallibility therefore implies inerrancy.
So exactly what Scripture is the author of Timothy referring to? That letter he is writing at that moment? The gospels we have weren't yet written, so maybe whatever docs about Jesus they had at the time? The books we now call the Old Testament?

The first question should be "what is Scripture?"
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Old 09-19-2014, 04:38 PM
 
Location: El Paso, TX
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Originally Posted by Mightyqueen801 View Post
So exactly what Scripture is the author of Timothy referring to? That letter he is writing at that moment? The gospels we have weren't yet written, so maybe whatever docs about Jesus they had at the time? The books we now call the Old Testament?

The first question should be "what is Scripture?"
The author of Timothy is the apostle Paul. 2 Timothy is the last of Paul's writings and is dated to around A.D.67. Paul regarded what he said and wrote to be the word of God (1 Thessalonians 2:13) as did Peter (2 Peter 3:15-16) who equated Paul's writings as being as authoritative as the rest of the Scriptures which was a reference to the Old Testament Scriptures. Therefore, not only did Paul have in mind the Old Testament Scriptures in 2 Timothy 3:16, but also his own writings.
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Old 09-19-2014, 04:42 PM
 
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BIBLE: Inspired, Inerrant, Infallible ??
1 Inspired -- no way!
2 Inerrant -- not a chance!
3 Infallible -- never!
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Old 09-19-2014, 05:37 PM
 
Location: Mobile, Al.
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the bible is a sealed book, and it takes the only true God to revealed it to you, (see Isaiah 29:9-16). and two, it said, "all" scriptures, not every. because, not everything in the bible is a statement of truth, but, everything in the bible is truly stated.

and by the bible being sealed, many who read it don't understand it. to understand the bible, and in order to get the revelation of it. one needs the revelator, THE HOLY SPIRIT, JESUS, God, the Spirit, to reveal his word to you. notice I said "his", word.

peace.
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Old 09-19-2014, 10:50 PM
 
Location: Elsewhere
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555 View Post
The author of Timothy is the apostle Paul. 2 Timothy is the last of ul's writings and is dated to around A.D.67. Paul regarded what he said and wrote to be the word of God (1 Thessalonians 2:13) as did Peter (2 Peter 3:15-16) who equated Paul's writings as being as authoritative as the rest of the Scriptures which was a reference to the Old Testament Scriptures. Therefore, not only did Paul have in mind the Old Testament Scriptures in 2 Timothy 3:16, but also his own writings.
Um, yeah, thanks, I know who the author of Timothy is.

Paul regarded and Peter regarded these writings as coming from God, but they were still human. A human cannot put God into words. Their own personal opinions and prejudices come through.

Don't make the tiresome mistake of thinking I'm saying the writings are not valuable. I'm saying they have to be studied with prayer and guidance from God and not just mindlessly quoted or quoted in parts as "truth". There is a danger in ascribing equality of a man-made work to God. I too often see on these very forums people unable to separate God from the Bible.

Last edited by Mightyqueen801; 09-19-2014 at 11:07 PM..
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Old 09-20-2014, 05:15 AM
 
Location: El Paso, TX
33,229 posts, read 26,434,639 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Mightyqueen801 View Post
Um, yeah, thanks, I know who the author of Timothy is.

Paul regarded and Peter regarded these writings as coming from God, but they were still human. A human cannot put God into words. Their own personal opinions and prejudices come through.

Don't make the tiresome mistake of thinking I'm saying the writings are not valuable. I'm saying they have to be studied with prayer and guidance from God and not just mindlessly quoted or quoted in parts as "truth". There is a danger in ascribing equality of a man-made work to God. I too often see on these very forums people unable to separate God from the Bible.
The Bible is not merely a man-made work. It is the Word of God and the word of truth. God used men to set down in writing His communicated message. And yes, for the believer in Jesus Christ to grow spiritually the Bible has to be studied under the filling of the Holy Spirit who is the true Mentor.

While there is much about God which cannot be understood, what God has chosen to reveal about Himself and about His plan of the ages can be understood at least to a degree and put into words, sometimes using language of accommodation - anthropopathisms and anthropomorpisms. Many of God's attributes are mentioned in the Bible. Because He has revealed it we know that God is sovereign, He is love, He is righteous and just, He is eternal and immutable, He is truth, He is omnipotent, omnipresent, and omniscient. He is gracious. He is triune.

I'm not sure if anyone has made the claim that the Bible is God, but there are people who like to make the accusation of Bible idolatry against believers who know that the Bible is God's word.

Last edited by Michael Way; 09-20-2014 at 05:24 AM..
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Old 09-20-2014, 06:45 AM
 
6,822 posts, read 6,633,481 times
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Originally Posted by thrillobyte View Post
1 Inspired -- no way!
2 Inerrant -- not a chance!
3 Infallible -- never!
According to the authoritative word of Thrillobyte.
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