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He made them male and female, 101c, and we are also told that Eve came out of Adam, so Adam was first. Yes, they were creations of God but the relationship is the same. I believe that Jesus, the Word, came out of the Father. There would have been no Word to become flesh if the Father had not existed. The Father, the originator, is able to exist without His Word being brought forth, but is the Word able to exist with out the Father? Jesus said that He came forth from the Father and that the Father is greater than He is. He also prayed to the Father, His God. I have read some of the definitions, but I'm sorry, that the very long posts are difficult for me to go through, 101c. God bless.
KJV 1 Corinthians 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Here Jesus is clearly distinguished from God, and is is NOT God to believers and ... the Holy Spirit is not even mentioned as God to believers. Paul said this long after Jesus was raised to heaven and was ... with God (Note Greek for alongside, not within John 1:1)
What did God have the words about His being a God of gods recorded? And using the same word for God, elohim as for the gods He IS God of? The LXX reads the same, so same word used (except for the plural for gods).
The verses you quote in context have very specific applications, not all encompassing. Context is critical.
CA, you're going from bad to worsts. listen from THOMAS, "My Lord", and my GOD", JESUS is the Lord GOD. get it?. Lord and...............and God. if not don't worry about it, (smile)
now with:
G4314 πρός pros (pros') prep.
1. forward to, i.e. toward
2. (genitive case) the side of, i.e. pertaining to
just don't use half of the definition use all of it. who is the WORD pertaining to in the genitive case? answer, GOD, the eternal Spirit
now, H430 אֱלוֹהִים 'elohiym (el-o-heem') n-m.
1. gods in the ordinary sense. (False Idols), of men, see #3.
2. but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God
3. occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates
4. and sometimes as a superlative
see that word superlative above in the definition, of the highest kind, quality, or order; surpassing all else or others; supreme; extreme. this word describes our Lord to a tee. G2962 κύριος kurios (koo'-ree-os) n.
1. supreme in authority.
and the Greek G243 allos, is the kind, andthe quality of that SUPREME PERSON here, the Lord JESUS, GOD.
now go back to the drawing board and try something
He made them male and female, 101c, and we are also told that Eve came out of Adam, so Adam was first. Yes, they were creations of God but the relationship is the same. I believe that Jesus, the Word, came out of the Father. There would have been no Word to become flesh if the Father had not existed. The Father, the originator, is able to exist without His Word being brought forth, but is the Word able to exist with out the Father? Jesus said that He came forth from the Father and that the Father is greater than He is. He also prayed to the Father, His God. I have read some of the definitions, but I'm sorry, that the very long posts are difficult for me to go through, 101c. God bless.
Shana, slow down, listen, Jesus is the Father in Spirit, and he "shared" himself, (spirit), in flesh as a man, (diversified), hence the Son of Man. understand, JESUS is God the Spirit, quit thinking carnal, ok
101c, Jesus never referred to Himself as the Father in the Spirit. He said that He was the Son of God, that God was His Father and His God.Jesus had a will that was separate from the Father's will even though they are One in purpose and intention. He had to submit His will to His Father's will when it was time for Him to die. The Father was in Him but Jesus derived His existence from the Father. It's not carnal thinking either, and saying that it putting down the faith of another, to me, when this is what a believer reads in the scriptures with God's direction God bless.
Last edited by ShanaBrown; 10-01-2014 at 06:49 PM..
101c, Jesus never referred to Himself as the Father in the Spirit. He said that He was the Son of God, that God was His Father and His God. It's not carnal thinking either, and saying that it putting down the faith of another, to me, when this is what a believer reads in the scriptures with God's direction God bless.
not while he is shared in the flesh, NO, and he said that he was the Son of Man. Carnal think is fleshly wisdom, that's all. no put down, if so many would fold. the scriptures states you're NOT in the flesh if the Spirit is in you, see?.
and three, the man was to "HAVE" the rule over the woman, and not to "RULE" her, big difference.
Except in Hebrew it doesn't say "have rule." It says משל, "to rule." You're basing your theology off of the English translation, not off of what the text actually says.
Quote:
Originally Posted by 101c
rule here is about responsibility. for in Christ there is neither male nor female.
No, in the Hebrew is quite clearly says that the man will rule the woman. It's not about responsibility, it's about authority.
Quote:
Originally Posted by 101c
believe me, I understand where you're coming from. but Eve and Adam are creations. and Eve was manifested after her husband, with her own shape, here own fashion, and her own figure. but I did take note of one thing, when Eve came out of Adam, one thing was not mention, blood. she is flesh of his flesh, and bone of his bone, but no mention of blood, we can assume all we want. I have my reason why. but I not yet fully furnish in that area as of now. maybe a future discussion?. but take note our Lord Jesus after his resurrection is "Flesh" and "Bone", but no blood, (smile). but that another topic to discuss also in the future. but as for spirit I was just using a carnal object lesion for the spirit, that's all.
but I understand why you asked.
be blessed.
I think you've got a long way to go in your research before you starting waxing theological all over the internet.
Yeah, it makes for silly rhetoric when you read it that way.
Quote:
Originally Posted by expatCA
Scripture does not contradict Scripture.
Scripture repeatedly contradicts scripture.
Quote:
Originally Posted by expatCA
Plus Paul went on to say:
KJV 1 Corinthians 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
Here Jesus is clearly distinguished from God, and is is NOT God to believers and ... the Holy Spirit is not even mentioned as God to believers. Paul said this long after Jesus was raised to heaven and was ... with God (Note Greek for alongside, not within John 1:1)
Why did God have the words about His being a God of gods recorded? And using the same word for God, elohim as for the gods He IS God of? The LXX reads the same, so same word used (except for the plural for gods).
The verses you quote in context have very specific applications, not all encompassing. Context is critical.
I would suggest that your notion of "context" is more about proof-texting than about actually using the context to try to understand what the text is saying.
He made them male and female, 101c, and we are also told that Eve came out of Adam, so Adam was first. Yes, they were creations of God but the relationship is the same. I believe that Jesus, the Word, came out of the Father. There would have been no Word to become flesh if the Father had not existed. The Father, the originator, is able to exist without His Word being brought forth, but is the Word able to exist with out the Father? Jesus said that He came forth from the Father and that the Father is greater than He is. He also prayed to the Father, His God. I have read some of the definitions, but I'm sorry, that the very long posts are difficult for me to go through, 101c. God bless.
Yes
God/Adam alone
Eve produced from Adam, Jesus from God
All mankind from Adam through Eve
All from God through Jesus.
Yeah, it makes for silly rhetoric when you read it that way.
Scripture repeatedly contradicts scripture.
I would suggest that your notion of "context" is more about proof-texting than about actually using the context to try to understand what the text is saying.
NO valid contradictions and they all agree, But context plays a huge part in accurate understanding.
well since you're an expert, who sent his angel to John. Revelation 1:1 "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John".
was it the one whom you call FATHER, or the one Jesus Christ? which one
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God bless.