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Sacramento. How many people in the California side of Lake Tahoe commute two hours each way to Sacramento? Lake Tahoe is closer to Reno than it is to Tahoe.
The only reason why the California side of Lake Tahoe's included is because Placer and El Dorado Counties stretch all the way from the far outer Sacramento suburbs to South Lake Tahoe. They really gerrymandered the county lines.
I disagree.
Tahoe and Sacramento have a connection and shared history since the Gold Rush days. My family has had a cabin in South Lake Tahoe since the 80's.
The folks on the California side of Tahoe are not as connected to Reno as you would think, and it's not an easy commute from South Lake Tahoe to Reno. I know I used to live in South Lake Tahoe.
Many people that live in Placer and El Dorado counties work in Sacramento County, and a lot of the residents of northeastern Sacramento County suburbs work in Southern Placer County.
The majority of the population of Placer and El Dorado Counties is closer to Sacramento County that Tahoe cities.
The population of Lake Tahoe communities and cities on the California side is very very small they don't add much to the Sacramento Metro population.
One other thing, the Sacramento Metro gambling industry is as big or bigger than Reno. I read a report about a few days ago.
I think that the Denver MSA should include Boulder CO, ( it used to) which is only 28 miles from downtown Denver. Im not sure of the commuter percentages, but it is a continuous development, and even has cities in the Boulder and Denver MSAs that share land borders. But being from Denver, i suppose it does "feel" a little different up there.
I think that the Denver MSA should include Boulder CO, ( it used to) which is only 28 miles from downtown Denver. Im not sure of the commuter percentages, but it is a continuous development, and even has cities in the Boulder and Denver MSAs that share land borders. But being from Denver, i suppose it does "feel" a little different up there.
LA and the Inland Empire are the classic example of this, where as of 2010, 23% of San Bernardino workers commute to LA/OC and 15% of Riverside county residents doing the same. Commercial traffic is even more tied, since the biggest industry in the OC is warehousing for supplying the LA metro, as well as being the area where industry relocated when land in LA and Orange Counties became too expensive. The IE would be a small town/rural area if it wasn't functioning as the cheap suburbs of LA.
Separating the Bay Area into North and South is fairly arbitrary as well.
MSA/CSAs are based off of commute patterns, not what you think looks right.
But they aren’t always. A larger percentage of people commute from Durham, Chatham, Lee, and Granville Counties to Wake County, than from Rowan to Mecklenburg. Yet only Rowan and Mecklenburg share an MSA.
But they aren’t always. A larger percentage of people commute from Durham, Chatham, Lee, and Granville Counties to Wake County, than from Rowan to Mecklenburg. Yet only Rowan and Mecklenburg share an MSA.
I imagine the case for Raleigh-Durham is similar to Boston-Worcester-Providence.
When they came up with this whole MSA thing (back in the 50s? I forget), they designated certain cities as being big enough to anchor their own metropolitan areas. I’m assuming that the gov decided Raleigh and Durham were each stand-alone-ish enough to have metros of their own, and the designation has remained the same even as the cities have grown more and more co-dependent.
I think they came up with CSAs in the first place to account for places like the Research Triangle where MSAs were really starting to bleed together.
Raleigh and Durham were split in 2003 I think. I think the MSA criteria was changed to the anchor population county needing to be the top draw for commuting. Durham having most of RTP and Wake having most of the housing meant that the criteria was reversed. So it didn’t matter if 12% of Durham worked in Wake since 15% of Wake worked in Durham. So despite Wake-Durham being the two counties tied more with commuting than any other two counties in the state, because the majority goes the wrong way it doesn’t count.
I imagine the case for Raleigh-Durham is similar to Boston-Worcester-Providence.
When they came up with this whole MSA thing (back in the 50s? I forget), they designated certain cities as being big enough to anchor their own metropolitan areas. I’m assuming that the gov decided Raleigh and Durham were each stand-alone-ish enough to have metros of their own, and the designation has remained the same even as the cities have grown more and more co-dependent.
I think they came up with CSAs in the first place to account for places like the Research Triangle where MSAs were really starting to bleed together.
You are correct that in the beginning, Raleigh and Durham were their own separate metropolitan areas. It wasn't until Research Triangle Park was established and started gaining steam that they became one metropolitan area--which happened in the 1973 delineations. That changed with the 2003 revisions when they became separate MSAs but were included in one CSA.
Raleigh and Durham were split in 2003 I think. I think the MSA criteria was changed to the anchor population county needing to be the top draw for commuting. Durham having most of RTP and Wake having most of the housing meant that the criteria was reversed. So it didn’t matter if 12% of Durham worked in Wake since 15% of Wake worked in Durham. So despite Wake-Durham being the two counties tied more with commuting than any other two counties in the state, because the majority goes the wrong way it doesn’t count.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mutiny77
You are correct that in the beginning, Raleigh and Durham were their own separate metropolitan areas. It wasn't until Research Triangle Park was established and started gaining steam that they became one metropolitan area--which happened in the 1973 delineations. That changed with the 2003 revisions when they became separate MSAs but were included in one CSA.
Fascinating!
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