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Why is it called stealing when rich people are taxed but it's called having skin in the game when poor people are taxed?
Why is it called a loophole when a rich person takes advantage of it but it's called gaming the system when a poor person does it. Why do they say good for him when the rich person does it but they say he should be prosecuted when a poor person does it?
Why is it ok for the company to want as much money as they can get but if the unions wants a raise they're accused of being greedy?
Why is it called stealing when rich people are taxed but it's called having skin in the game when poor people are taxed?
Why is it called a loophole when a rich person takes advantage of it but it's called gaming the system when a poor person does it. Why do they say good for him when the rich person does it but they say he should be prosecuted when a poor person does it?
Why is it ok for the company to want as much money as they can get but if the unions wants a raise they're accused of being greedy?
why is it paying their fair share taxing one group more than the other
why is it ok for the poor and middleclass to pay nearly nothing in taxes, and its ok to DISCRIMINATORALY tax one group at high rates
why is tax law and the same tax BREAKS/DEFERMENTS/EXEMPTIONS that the poor love and use, called a loophole when the rich use them
why is it ok for the government to mandate what could cause LOSSES to a company
In our warped society some people are making too much money and it's just NOT FAIR.
Legally take it from one and in the name of compassion give it to others.
It's just logical to assume that people with money make more money as they have money to invest.
That is also NOT FAIR.
But you can NEVER achieve financial equality because there always needs to be someone with money to give to those that don't have it. Government is just a redistributor of that money.
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