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The reason that promiscuous men are not looked down upon like promiscuous women is that you have to remember that a woman who has multiple male partners is in the situation of not knowing who the father is, if a pregnancy occurs. Men do not have to worry about that, because we cannot have babies. Not knowing who the father of a baby is has had negative connotations for many centuries, nothing new.
And also if a number of men release their seed into one women, their sperm compete with one another as far as which sperm will be the one to fertilize a woman's egg. Once again, men do not have to worry about that.
Oddly enough, there seems to be less stigma on those men who have offspring that they know nothing about.
women who use the child as a weapon against men get no consequence, but yet a man can be the best parent and still not get custody of the child.
Or, another way of seeing it is that a divorced dad tends to live footloose and fancy free like he did in the days of his bachelorhood, but the divorced mom tends to end up stuck with the kids after the divorce and not living the swinging lifestyle of her single days.
While I have no first hand experience, I belive in a mff, the girls both share him, hence, there is no line, no waiting. Same with a mfm. Although I understand the OP question, but my understanding of a gang bang is more humiliating than pleasure driven....I could be wrong. I don't think of a mfm as a gang bang, I think more than 2 guys would be a gang bang, but who knows?? not I.
As a female, a mfm is the best kind of 3some - if both men are attractive. I would not feel like it's a gang bang, but rather, getting to be the center of attention and not having to share. And if you know what you're doing, there is no issue of who gets to go first...things can be done at the same time.
Why is it during 3-somes with a man and 2 women, its called just that...'a 3-some'...but when its a woman and 2 men, its called a GANG BANG or stated how a 'train' was ran on the female?
How come if a woman is thin, everyone accuses her of having an eating disorder and getting on her case, but if a man is thin, nobody's calling him 'manorexic' or anything and they just let him be?
How come if a woman is thin, everyone accuses her of having an eating disorder and getting on her case, but if a man is thin, nobody's calling him 'manorexic' or anything and they just let him be?
Maybe because it is known that anorexia/bulimia is prevalent among women, not men.
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