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If what happened to Jesus was what God NEEDED to happen to appease His Holiness or justice or righteousness or whatever other nonsense you believe, why did Jesus ask God to "Forgive them they know not what they do."??? Why would they need to be forgiven for doing what God needed to have done????
What you call nonsense is stated by the writers of Scripture to be a fact.
God used the unbelieving Jewish leadership and the Romans to get Jesus on the cross where He needed to be in order to die for the sins of the world.
Acts 2:23 this Man, delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death.
God can use even the evil of man to accomplish His plan and purpose.
Jesus Himself stated that His blood was to be poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. (Matthew 26:28)
What you call nonsense is stated by the writers of Scripture to be a fact.
God used the unbelieving Jewish leadership and the Romans to get Jesus on the cross where He needed to be in order to die for the sins of the world.
Acts 2:23 this Man, delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death.
God can use even the evil of man to accomplish His plan and purpose.
Jesus Himself stated that His blood was to be poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. (Matthew 26:28)
No. God can use a person's volition to achieve His purpose without interfering with a person's volition. God knew from eternity past whether a person will be positive or negative about any given thing and has already factored that into His plan.
If what happened to Jesus was what God NEEDED to happen to appease His Holiness or justice or righteousness or whatever other nonsense you believe, why did Jesus ask God to "Forgive them they know not what they do."??? Why would they need to be forgiven for doing what God needed to have done????
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555
What you call nonsense is stated by the writers of Scripture to be a fact.
God used the unbelieving Jewish leadership and the Romans to get Jesus on the cross where He needed to be in order to die for the sins of the world.
Acts 2:23 this Man, delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death.
God can use even the evil of man to accomplish His plan and purpose.
Jesus Himself stated that His blood was to be poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. (Matthew 26:28)
Nothing you said remotely suggests that God needed a blood sacrifice to appease Him!!! It simply states WHAT actually happened, that God KNEW it would happen, and that it is part of God's PLAN to bring us to God, not WHY it was necessary!!! There would not have been prophecies about it if it was NOT part of God's plan, but the barbaric nonsense of a blood sacrifice to appease Him is all the result of human ignorance and superstition. God NEVER wanted sacrifice. It.was always about mercy and compassion for one another that Jesus revealed is agape love. With agape love, there can be no harm to others and therefore no sin.
No. God can use a person's volition to achieve His purpose without interfering with a person's volition. God knew from eternity past whether a person will be positive or negative about any given thing and has already factored that into His plan.
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