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without argument.
this verse kills the “a” god, theory with small case “g” in John 1:1c. Deuteronomy 32:39 "See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand”.
if the word was “with”, God, then the Word is not a “god” as some say. so John 1:1c is correct in saying “GOD”.
and God did Give his blood. read acts 20:28, oh well,
next, is this verse in the bible, Revelation 22:13 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last”. and this is our Lord Jesus speaking.
and what about that isaiah 35:4 ?. answer please.
G129
Original: αἷμα
Transliteration: aima
Phonetic: hah'-ee-mah
Thayer Definition:
blood
of man or animals
refers to the seat of life
of those things that resemble blood, grape juice
blood shed, to be shed by violence, slay, murder
Origin: of uncertain derivation
TDNT entry: 03:52,3
Part(s) of speech: Noun Masculine
Strong's Definition: Of uncertain derivation; blood, literally (of men or animals), figuratively (the juice of grapes) or specifically (the atoning blood of Christ); by implication bloodshed, also kindred: - blood.
Since it is evident in the Greek that Jesus is God, and since the entire gospel of John emphasizes the deity of Jesus, alleging poor translations and lack of contextual consideration is without merit.
The following article quotes Dan Wallace - randphoenix: John 1:1 and Greek Exegesis. Dr. Wallace, an excellent Greek scholar makes this comment regarding John 1:1.
A good illustration of this is John 1:1c...We know that 'the Word' is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: 'and the Word was God.'...why was theos thrown forward?...why does it lack the article? In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: 'What God was, the Word was" is how one translation brings out its force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word...with the person of 'God'(The Father).
That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John's wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.
Refer to Myth 5: The deity of Christ was invented by emperor Constantine.
Excerpt:
Altogether, we have more than fifty Greek New Testament manuscripts that are prior to Constantine’s reign. Not one of them denies the deity of Christ. [Bolded mine]
blood
of man or animals
refers to the seat of life
of those things that resemble blood, grape juice
blood shed, to be shed by violence, slay, murder
Origin: of uncertain derivation
TDNT entry: 03:52,3
Part(s) of speech: Noun Masculine
Strong's Definition: Of uncertain derivation; blood, literally (of men or animals), figuratively (the juice of grapes) or specifically (the atoning blood of Christ); by implication bloodshed, also kindred: - blood.
without argument.
this verse kills the “a” god, theory with small case “g” in John 1:1c. Deuteronomy 32:39 "See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand”.
if the word was “with”, God, then the Word is not a “god” as some say. so John 1:1c is correct in saying “GOD”.
Nope, context is involve or this is false.
ASV Deuteronomy 10:17 For Jehovah your God, he is God of gods, and Lord of lords, the great God, the mighty, and the terrible, who regardeth not persons, nor taketh reward.
Was Moses lying?
ASV Daniel 11:36 And the king shall do according to his will; and he shall exalt himself, and magnify himself above every god, and shall speak marvellous things against the God of gods; and he shall prosper till the indignation be accomplished; for that which is determined shall be done.
Was the angel lying?
God and His Son even call the angels and some men Gods. sooo.... your wrong.
he can't have because Greek grammar is against the position and then the Shailach principle blows holes in the verses where the word "God" is used at all.
he can't have because Greek grammar is against the position and then the Shailach principle blows holes in the verses where the word "God" is used at all.
the scriptures are clear. there is no "god" WITH him, or any "God", and that with a cap "G", also. so that eliminate the first -third person in a so called trinity. the only companion God have is the share of himself. see Zec 13:7.
and the so called gods is just that, so call. Psalms 96:5 "For all the gods of the nations are idols: but the LORD made the heavens". and God is no Idol, or have association with them.
and as for John 1:1c in context with God, John 1:14 eliminate that also. that's the share,
Since it is evident in the Greek that Jesus is God, and since the entire gospel of John emphasizes the deity of Jesus, alleging poor translations and lack of contextual consideration is without merit.
The following article quotes Dan Wallace - randphoenix: John 1:1 and Greek Exegesis. Dr. Wallace, an excellent Greek scholar makes this comment regarding John 1:1.
A good illustration of this is John 1:1c...We know that 'the Word' is the subject because it has the definite article, and we translate it accordingly: 'and the Word was God.'...why was theos thrown forward?...why does it lack the article? In brief, its emphatic position stresses its essence or quality: 'What God was, the Word was" is how one translation brings out its force. Its lack of a definite article keeps us from identifying the person of the Word...with the person of 'God'(The Father).
That is to say, the word order tells us that Jesus Christ has all the divine attributes that the Father has; lack of the article tells us that Jesus Christ is not the Father. John's wording here is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism.
Refer to Myth 5: The deity of Christ was invented by emperor Constantine.
Excerpt:
Altogether, we have more than fifty Greek New Testament manuscripts that are prior to Constantine’s reign. Not one of them denies the deity of Christ. [Bolded mine]
Quote:
Originally Posted by Richard1965
Mike, do you have anything original?...
Quote:
Originally Posted by expatCA
he can't have because Greek grammar is against the position and then the Shailach principle blows holes in the verses where the word "God" is used at all.
Dr. Dan Wallace, an expert in the Greek language disagrees with you as do so many other Greek language experts. More importantly, the Bible disagrees with you. Jesus Christ as God created everything that has been created as stated in John 1:3 and Colossians 1:16-17.
Jesus Christ is the Second Person of the trinity.
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