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Yes--he never talked about a sexual orientation of being "gay". He instead said that God created male and female, and that we shouldn't mess with marriage as God created it.
Do you honestly believe that Adam and Eve are prime examples of what a marriage and child-rearing should be all about.
Fail!
Oh, I should also mention that A&E were not married as far as we know.
As for your "not messing with marriage as God created it" ...you're surely not serious, are you? Biblical marriage completely disregards the woman (she being the property of the male) and present-day marriages that result in a 50% divorce rate certainly indicate that people are doing a fine job of "messing with marriage as God created it" ...!
Or, is homosexuality the cause for heterosexuals jumping out of their "God-ordained' marriages?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vizio
Weird how he COULD have used the moment to talk about how it was ok to be gay--that the OT writers got it wrong.....but he didn't.
Weird, huh?
Why would Jesus have taken the opportunity to include homosexuality in His answer to a question asked of Him by His opponents with regard to divorce BETWEEN a man and a woman? That WOULD have been not only weird but also totally irrelevant!
Do you honestly believe that Adam and Eve are prime examples of what a marriage and child-rearing should be all about.
Fail!
Oh, I should also mention that A&E were not married as far as we know.
As for your "not messing with marriage as God created it" ...you're surely not serious, are you? Biblical marriage completely disregards the woman (she being the property of the male) and present-day marriages that result in a 50% divorce rate certainly indicate that people are doing a fine job of "messing with marriage as God created it" ...!
Or, is homosexuality the cause for heterosexuals jumping out of their "God-ordained' marriages?
Why would Jesus have taken the opportunity to include homosexuality in His answer to a question asked of Him by His opponents with regard to divorce BETWEEN a man and a woman? That WOULD have been not only weird but also totally irrelevant!
Best not trouble Viz with facts. They upset him. He can't digest them. Lack of an enzyme or something, I'm not sure. I'm a writer, not a doctor.
Do you honestly believe that Adam and Eve are prime examples of what a marriage and child-rearing should be all about.
Fail!
Oh, I should also mention that A&E were not married as far as we know.
As for your "not messing with marriage as God created it" ...you're surely not serious, are you? Biblical marriage completely disregards the woman (she being the property of the male) and present-day marriages that result in a 50% divorce rate certainly indicate that people are doing a fine job of "messing with marriage as God created it" ...!
Or, is homosexuality the cause for heterosexuals jumping out of their "God-ordained' marriages?
Why would Jesus have taken the opportunity to include homosexuality in His answer to a question asked of Him by His opponents with regard to divorce BETWEEN a man and a woman? That WOULD have been not only weird but also totally irrelevant!
I'm happy to be able to rep you on this one, Romulus.
Jesus did not mention homosexuality specifically because homosexuality is a compound sin made up of many other sins which Jesus does address such as His definition of marriage, addressing the woman at the well, pointing out the hypocrisies of the Jews, as well as confirming the OT. Jesus addressed all sins but many are blinded by their sins and cannot see the difference between sin and righteousness.
Jesus did not mention homosexuality specifically because homosexuality is a compound sin made up of many other sins........snip
And your source for that claim is.....? You? Your pastor? Mike Huckabee? The Family Research Council? I always wonder where, and how, the anti-gay brigade comes up with this stuff.
And your source for that claim is.....? You? Your pastor? Mike Huckabee? The Family Research Council? I always wonder where, and how, the anti-gay brigade comes up with this stuff.
Why didn't Jesus address pedophilia, or domestic abuse or sex slaves or all of the hundreds of different sins we can think of? The Ten Commandants covers all sins and Jesus said to follow them.
Every single one of these sins is in opposition to the Second Great Commandment that Jesus gave us--"to love our neighbors as ourselves." In fact, that just about covers all the Ten Commandments when it is put into practice.
Homosexuality on the other hand, has nothing to do with HARMING one's neighbor. It is about finding someone to share life with.
Jesus healed the sexual servant of a centurion as well--and there is plenty of internal biblical evidence to support such view, although it MAY have not been a homosexual reference. However, internal evidence of the Greek language gives preponderance of evidence that it was.
Jesus defined rather clearly as the Word of God teaches:
Marriage definition Matthew 19:4-6:
“Haven’t you read,” he replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male
and female,’[a] 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother
and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’[b]? 6 So they are no
longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one
separate.”
Jesus quotes the OT for the definition of marriage:
Gen. 1:27 ‘that at the beginning the Creator made them male and female,’[a]
Gen. 2:24 ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’[b]
Jesus' word is very clear so that all can understand
"a man" ... male \ singular
"his father and mother" " ... male \ singular --- female \ singular
"be united" ... sexual relationship
"unitedto his wife" ... female \ singular
Thus the Word of God defines being sexually immoral as sexual relations as adultery and anything other than a married 1 male \ 1 female
Hebrews 13:4 Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral.
btw ... you're welcome.
Balderdash about one man and one woman. If God was so intent on that being HIS law, He would have instituted it from the beginning. Abraham would have had one woman, not two--and hence two new religions springing from Abrahamic beginnings.
Or how about Jacob? Or David or Solomon. Or earlier with Gideon--all had multiple wives. In David's case, God even GAVE him multiple wives--those of the slain Saul.
If it had been such a terrible thing, then when Jesus was talking about divorce, He would have added the caveat that no man should have MORE than one wife.
Even when Paul mentions singular marriage for PREACHERS, it is pertinent that he MUST do this, because obviously there were multiple wives among some early christians. If it was clear as a cold mountain day in the Colorado Rockies, it wouldn't have been necessary to pen such words. Further, he limited it to just preachers (bishops). Why not clear it up and say one man, one woman. He didn't do that.
Marriage between one man and one woman is a CULTURAL more, an accepted custom which is more or less obligatory to follow.
You and Vizio prove you haven't a clue about Scripture when you go against the expressions of marriage within the Bible itself. If God doesn't change--then why did He? Please don't create a fictionalize story as to why this "might" have been. Prove it with the unchanging Scripture.
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