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Yes, when 1st-century Christianity ended, the apostasy set in just as gospel writer Luke wrote at Acts 20:29-30.
We are nearing the soon coming 'time of separation' ( genuine wheat from fake weed/tares ) when the humble ' sheep ' will be counted as being righteous - Matthew 25:31-33,37
Jesus is with us through: the pages of Scripture, prayer and through association with his followers - Hebrews 10:24-25
Well, if He can preserve His written word, why couldn't He have preserved His Church along with it? You believe (and I agree with you on this), that the Church Jesus Christ established fell into apostasy. You seem to believe that God allowed that to happen. What makes you so sure that He didn't also allow His written word to be corrupted? I mean, you've got to strive for a certain degree of consistency here. Otherwise, you come across as having no credibility whatsoever.
He preserved believers not a church.The parable of the wheat and weeds show the field would be filled with weeds and some wheat. There has always been wheat/true worshipers, but mainly weeds since the end of the 1st century. In his explanation he showed the "Church" would be weed filled and NOT fixed, rather in the Harvest the wheat would be taken out into ONE storehouse.
He did not allow His written word to be totally corrupted, though corruption entered in. However what it actually teaches that is critical has never been impacted by the variations, just non essentials. False teachers have done far more damage to the truth than the various translation issues.
The JW's have hounded me through 5 states now, ringing my doorbell and beating on my door endlessly, stalking me from laudromat to home to work and harassing me to no end. I could give a flip less what they believe about anything, I just want them to finally leave me alone. I bought a doormat that says "GO AWAY", but they ignore that, and ring and knock anyway. So I put up a sign telling them we are all stocked up on BS here, sell it somewhere else or I will lawyer up and sue your church into the very fires of hell for harassment and trespass. Since putting up that sign they have left me alone, knock wood...
I could care less what those pests think of LGBT, or anything else. I just want them to leave me alone.
Just put a sign on your door that says "no Jehovah's Witnesses" and they will leave you alone.
*sigh* ...once again someone is using a post-1946 version of the Bible. Once again they are using a term (homosexual/s) that was NEVER used in the original scriptures as well as presenting the said term as a 'couldn't be any plainer' condemnation of homosexuality. When will people learn that the equivalent of the term 'homosexual' is NOT found anywhere in the Bible in the original Hebrew, Aramaic or Greek languages??
While I realize that there are some who don't like the KJV Bible ...here is the same scripture from the KJV:
1 Corinthians 6:9-10 ...9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.
Which words from the above scripture do we interpret to mean 'homosexuals'? Is it 'effeminate'? Is it 'abusers of themselves with mankind'? Which?
We also have a glaring discrepancy here. Paul says that 'the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of heaven'. Well, that includes EVERYONE. NO ONE will inherit the kingdom of heaven. Why? Because the very same Paul tells us in Romans 3:10 that NO ONE is righteous, no, not one. According to Paul, we're ALL goners!
Moreover, and I cannot emphasize the validity of these questions enough ...who the heck gave Paul the Apostle the authority to determine who will and who will not inherit the kingdom of heaven? And, why do so many Christians EQUATE Paul to God? Is it because the collators of the New Testament Canon saw fit to include Paul's epistles? Were the Bible collators ALSO 'divinely inspired'?
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Originally Posted by kjw47
What is written is--men who lie with men( woman) with woman are included as well) and it mentions drunkenness--I say drug addiction comes under that term as well. In fact at Galations 5:9-11-- also mentions spiritism--and it as well says--will not enter Gods kingdom--the greek word for spiritism = Farmacia.
Um, okay.
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Originally Posted by kjw47
Leviticus condemns homosexuality as well.
No it doesn't. As part of the Levite Holiness Code there were any number of things that were condemned (by God?) for reasons that we can only speculate on. If you can explain WHAT - precisely - is meant by the term 'man lying with man' and why such a taboo was given in the first place then please do so. There ARE explanations but I'd like to hear yours. While you're about it you might like to explain which of the other 613-plus commands of the Old Testament are supposed to be kept or otherwise discarded.
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Originally Posted by kjw47
Don't you believe that God can make sure his written word is preserved how he wants it?
I don't know what God can and cannot do and nor do you.
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Originally Posted by kjw47
Remember Sodom and Gomorrah?
Yes. I also remember the Alamo. So what? The destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah had nothing to do with homosexuality.
What would God think is the only thing that matters--Lies or truth?
Gods word teaches --the lake of fire is where the wicked go. It is the second death= eternal destruction.
Each must weigh reality on a scale
On one side-- 70-90 years of temporary pleasure by living to do ones own will.
On the other side trillions x trillions x trillions of never ending years of pleasures by living now to do Gods will.
Most cannot get by their fleshly desires now.
eternal destruction for babies? Eternal destructive for some native american 12 year old dying of disease in the middle of the Amazon that never heard of Jews or Jesus?
eternal destruction for babies? Eternal destructive for some native american 12 year old dying of disease in the middle of the Amazon that never heard of Jews or Jesus?
KJV Acys 24:15 And have hope toward God, which they themselves also allow, that there shall be a resurrection of the dead, both of the just and unjust.
Those who never had a chance to hear about God or His son, have the hope of a resurrection and n opportunity to learn.
Why on earth did He allow corruption to enter in at all? How did He decide where to draw the line?
Because of two things. There was always the accurate renderings available and because during the what and weed period it was to a great deal not important as even the "corrupted" copies had no truly significant changes that hid truth from someone who was truly looking. God's spirit is always active as a guide. Moderator cut: off topic/denominational bashing
Because of two things. There was always the accurate renderings available and because during the what and weed period it was to a great deal not important as even the "corrupted" copies had no truly significant changes that hid truth from someone who was truly looking. God's spirit is always active as a guide.
We have absolutely zero original documents and hundreds of different translations. When human beings are involved in the preservation, transcription and translation of any ancient texts, there are going to be errors. That's a no-brainer. You seem to be okay with a certain amount of "corruption" in the texts, but have a zero-tolerance policy for any corruption in the Church. That just doesn't make sense to me.
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