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What evidence is there that the great majority of women have been hated by societies throughout human history? How could men and women fall in love, get married, raise children and have a society function if women have been universally hated?
This seems to be a figment of some wild imaginations.
What evidence is there that the great majority of women have been hated by societies throughout human history? How could men and women fall in love, get married, raise children and have a society function if women have been universally hated?
This seems to be a figment of some wild imaginations.
The term "misogyny" doesn't strictly mean "hatred of women." It more accurately refers to prejudice against women in terms of how women's intelligence and abilities are viewed by others, and how these perceptions affect the individual rights afforded to women. Often, that prejudice results in violence against women when some perceive women as not "keeping their place." Even other women can be misogynistic. Author Margaret Atwood famously illustrated a misogynistic, dystopian society in her novel The Handmaid's Tale. There are those who have noted parallels between Atwood's fictional society and some aspects of modern-day society's attitudes toward women.
Last edited by Rachel NewYork; 07-25-2021 at 07:19 AM..
That's not quite historically accurate. Voting rights in the early United States were dependent not only upon gender but also upon whether or not an individual owned property. In fact, prior to the ratification of our United States Constitution, voting rights were also dependent upon one's religion, and only Christians in certain areas of the country were granted the right to vote. There was actually a small number of free Black male property owners who were able to vote in some states prior to the Civil War (this would have been in some Northern states -- not the Southern states).
Despite the fact that Black men were, officially in 1870, granted the right to vote by the U.S. Federal government, they did not experience that right everywhere in the U.S. The reality of their experience was that their voting rights were frequently and violently suppressed in certain areas of the country. It wasn't until the enactment of the Voting Rights Act in 1965 that this was addressed. Yet, even today, voter suppression continues to take on other forms in the United States. Click here for specifics.
Misogyny, as well, continues to thrive in this respect. In 2017, the alt-right movement in the United States notoriously and publicly put forth the notion that women should not have the right to vote.
white christian women with inherited wealth and married to white landowners were still denied the vote or even the right to own property.
The term "misogyny" doesn't strictly mean "hatred of women." It more accurately refers to prejudice against women in terms of how women's intelligence and abilities are viewed by others, and how these perceptions affect the individual rights afforded to women. Often, that prejudice results in violence against women when some perceive women as not "keeping their place." Even other women can be misogynistic. Author Margaret Atwood famously illustrated a misogynistic, dystopian society in her novel The Handmaid's Tale. There are those who have noted parallels between Atwood's fictional society and some aspects of modern-day society's attitudes toward women.
Misogyny, like racism, is a problem only when it is accompanied with power to act, to legislate laws. Those who carry it out, like Aunt Lydia, are merely instruments. They do not hold any power.
white christian women with inherited wealth and married to white landowners were still denied the vote or even the right to own property.
While it certainly was unfair that these women did not have the right to vote, if we were to weigh injustice on a scale, I believe that White, Christian women with inherited wealth would not weigh as heavily as those who were neither White and Christian nor in possession of inherited wealth. Even disenfranchised White, Christian women with inherited wealth enjoyed a modicum of power that was not afforded to some others.
And even though black people were considered to be inferior humans by many, if not most, white people in the late 18th century U.S., black men were given the vote in 1870. No women in the U.S. were given the vote until 1920. So an "inferior race" black male was considered more worthy of voting than a "superior race" white woman. As for black women ... Yes, all this is quite nauseating to think about.
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Originally Posted by Rachel NewYork
That's not quite historically accurate. Voting rights in the early United States were dependent not only upon gender but also upon whether or not an individual owned property. In fact, prior to the ratification of our United States Constitution, voting rights were also dependent upon one's religion, and only Christians in certain areas of the country were granted the right to vote. There was actually a small number of free Black male property owners who were able to vote in some states prior to the Civil War (this would have been in some Northern states -- not the Southern states).
These comments suggest that voting qualifications were primarily determined by the federal government. However, they were not. States decided, and different states decided differently.
Georgia's property requirement for voting was removed in 1789, the same year the Constitution took effect. Vermont had no property requirement upon becoming a state (it had previously been independent) in 1791.
Some states early in the republic required voters to be tax payers, but like the property requirement these largely fell away in the first decades.
As noted, blacks in some northern states could vote in some circumstances before the Civil War, and some municipalities allowed blacks (and women) to vote even if they could not vote in state elections.
Women who owned property could vote in New Jersey until 1807.
The territory of Wyoming granted women the vote in 1869. It became a state in 1890.
When the 19th Amendment was ratified in 1920, 15 of the 48 states already allowed women full suffrage, while most other states allowed them partial suffrage (to vote for President only, or only in primary elections, or only in local elections), with only seven states at that point banning all voting by women.
None of this is meant to minimize the denial of voting rights, but rather to illustrate the complex web of where and how traditionally disenfranchised groups were granted the vote.
While it certainly was unfair that these women did not have the right to vote, if we were to weigh injustice on a scale, I believe that White, Christian women with inherited wealth would not weigh as heavily as those who were neither White and Christian nor in possession of inherited wealth. Even disenfranchised White, Christian women with inherited wealth enjoyed a modicum of power that was not afforded to some others.
The point is not so much injustice as how misogyny acts in denying women a full human status.
More level compared to what, when? Can you provide a link to this data?
I can provide credible links but will defer to Bob-man. Actually for a Brave New World, none of us seems too happy. Probably because we struggle to change human nature.
All you can do is to legislate or force change. You can't create it. It needs to come from within people's minds and hearts to be genuine. We are talking about biological change.
Few will agree with me, I suppose, but I believe that misogyny arises due to our biological differences. I'm a woman and I don't excuse it but I believe that symbolic and actual interpretations of our biological differences, are the reason we will always deal with the power imbalance between men and women.
That is not bad news. We just haven't learned yet how to address it.
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