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The outrage du jour around Savannah this week was this meeting for Black Candidates, which barred white journalists (and white anybody else). For some reason I can’t quite put my finger on, I find it kind of funny. I think it is because those responsible thought it was a perfectly sensible idea.
Remember diversity, tolerance, inclusion, equality, etc. are banner words only when someone wants it to apply to them or their interests.
And mandatory diversity training taught me that discrimination can never occur against whites. Whites are always the bad guys now (or gals, or its.....I forget all of the terms from my mandatory gender identity training).
The Black community in America has a different standard apparently than the White community. Perhaps it's a reaction to Jim Crow, imo no matter what the history, it's still wrong, and just part of a cycle of bigotry and intolerance. I'm sure many people said "imagine if a White church did this to unify the White community behind one candidate", imagine the outrage.
So Americans are you ok with these double standards and if so why?
The lefties are okay with it. The party of Jim Crow and slavery has always treated blacks like they are children. Hoover and FDR bought their votes and the democrats have been buying their votes ever since.
Logic: If many liberals are fine with Blacks-only establishments, then they should have no problem with Whites-only establishments.
Logic: Mathematically, it's impossible to turn an inequality into an equality.....without a double standard. Say cookies are being distributed to two entities, A and B. Entity A, over a period of time, was given 2 cookies for every 1 cookie given to entity B. Eventually, at the end of that period of time entity A has 100 cookies and entity B has 50 cookies. Thus, A and B are economically unequal in cookie currency.
Question for the class: Going forward, can A and B ever reach cookie equality going forward without a DOUBLE STANDARD in the distribution of cookies? If so, how? If not, why not?
Extra Credit: What created the inequality of cookies? What would correct the inequality of cookies? Discuss double standards in the context of this scenario. What role does time frame play in determining if a standard is a double standard. If one includes ALL THE HISTORY of cookie distribution...is it actually a double standard to allow entity B to get more cookies than entity B going forward?
awaiting the answer from the "High IQ" students.
Last edited by Indentured Servant; 03-30-2019 at 10:00 AM..
Logic: Mathematically, it's impossible to turn an inequality into an equality.....without a double standard. Say cookies are being distributed to two entities, A and B. Entity A, over a period of time was given 2 cookies for every 1 cookie given to entity B. Eventually, at the end of that period of time entity A has 100 cookies and entity B has 50 cookies. Thus, A and B are economically unequal in cookie currency.
Question for the class: Going forward, can A and B ever reach cookie equality going forward without a DOUBLE STANDARD in the distribution of cookies? If so, how? If not, why not?
Extra Credit: What created the inequality of cookies? What would correct the inequality of cookies? Discuss double standards in the context of this scenario. What role does time frame play in determining if a standard is a double standard. If one includes ALL THE HISTORY of cookie distribution...is it actually a double standard to allow entity B to get more cookies than entity B?
awaiting the answer from the "High IQ" demographic.
Here's the basic flaw in you assumption - nobody gave anybody any cookies. Everyone makes there own. If I made 100 cookies while you only made 50, the only way for your to catch up is to get off your lazy whatever and make your cookies faster. Try again.
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