I can't take it anymore. (sentence, paragraph, quote)
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How did Jerry beat us to the printer?
How did Jerry beat us to the printer's?
How did Jerry beat us to the printers'?
How did Jerry beat us to the printers?
1) How did he beat us to that guy?
2) How did he beat us to that guy's place?
3) How did he beat us to those guys' place?
4) How did he beat us to those guys?
1 and 4 are implying that Jerry was on his way to meet either one printer or more than one printer, at no specified or implied location. - So he was going to meet people, as a priority.
2 and 3 imply that Jerry was on his way to the location where he would find either a printer, or more than one printer. So in this the priority was to get to a specific location, and not necessarily to meet anyone at all.
Nah. Fairies are not tree climbers. They have wings, so they need a tail that facilitates flying. Since fairies can hover, their tails are probably like those of a hummingbird.
In that case I would say it's an incomplete sentence since it fails to complete the thought or completely communicate what is to be understood.
One word answers are always grammatically correct. If the Question begins with "Whose . . .", the one word answer would normally be a possessive. English is sufficiently flexible to tolerate one-word sentences if the context makes it clear. Like, for example, "Yes." Or "Tomorrow." They all perfectly communicate what is to be understood.
"Whose book is this?" "Joe's" (You don't have to say "This is Joe's book.")
"Whose thumb is on the scale?" "The butcher's."
"Whose fault is everything in the universe?" "Obama's".
The context in which they are understood is not necessarily spelled out in the question. When two people are talking to each other, there is a tacit presumption that the context is understood, and words need not be endlessly repeated to assure that. Which is why we have pronouns like it, he and they, to substitute for understood referents.
One word answers are always grammatically correct. If the Question begins with "Whose . . .", the one word answer would normally be a possessive. English is sufficiently flexible to tolerate one-word sentences if the context makes it clear. Like, for example, "Yes." Or "Tomorrow." They all perfectly communicate what is to be understood.
"Whose book is this?" "Joe's" (You don't have to say "This is Joe's book.")
"Whose thumb is on the scale?" "The butcher's."
"Whose fault is everything in the universe?" "Obama's".
The context in which they are understood is not necessarily spelled out in the question. When two people are talking to each other, there is a tacit presumption that the context is understood, and words need not be endlessly repeated to assure that. Which is why we have pronouns like it, he and they, to substitute for understood referents.
That supposes that there is an understood referent. Book, thumb, and fault have been mentioned. If there is nothing previously defined, the possessive can be ambiguous.
In Copanut's original example, "How did Jerry beat us to the printer's?", there is no referent. I would omit the apostrophe.
One word answers are always grammatically correct. If the Question begins with "Whose . . .", the one word answer would normally be a possessive. English is sufficiently flexible to tolerate one-word sentences if the context makes it clear. Like, for example, "Yes." Or "Tomorrow." They all perfectly communicate what is to be understood.
"Whose book is this?" "Joe's" (You don't have to say "This is Joe's book.")
"Whose thumb is on the scale?" "The butcher's."
"Whose fault is everything in the universe?" "Obama's".
Does the period go inside or outside the closing quote mark?
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On the subject of religion~
