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No, I am not failing to distinquish. Whether the word 'word' is capitalized or not, the phrase is still 'the word of God'. When used with reference to Christ it is capitalized. When it refers to the Bible it usually is not.
Of Christ. John 1:1In the beginning was the Word (logos; Strong's 3056), and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Of Paul's message. 1 Thess. 2:13 For this reason we also constantly thank God that when you received the word of God which you heard from us, you accepted it not as the word of men, but for what it really is, the word (logon-logos; Strong's 3056) of God, which also performs its work in you who believe.
The rest of your post is your usual skeptics attempt to show that the Bible is nothing but the word of men, and is not the intended topic of this thread.
RESPONSE:
No. I'm just pointing out that you are rather obviously confusing the terms "Word of God" with "word of God." They are different things.
No. I'm just pointing out that you are rather obviously confusing the terms "Word of God" with "word of God." They are different things.
The entire point of this thread is that the phrase 'the word of God' is used both for Jesus Christ and for the Bible. Both reveal who and what God is. This should not be a difficult thing to understand. Even for a skeptic.
22 Seeing ye have purified your souls in obeying the truth through the Spirit unto unfeigned love of the brethren, see that ye love one another with a pure heart fervently: 23 Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word of God, which liveth and abideth for ever*.
1 Peter 1
*Some manuscripts by certain posters have a limited time.
There is NO word that translates as "which" in this verse. It is there by dogma alone. The actual word is zaō and it means to live, breathe, be among the living. No scripture or Bible can do that, period. It refers to Christ the LIVING Word of God who abides with us.
The word 'who' isn't found in the Greek of the verse either. The Greek and the translation can be seen here. >>> 1 Peter 1:23 Biblos Interlinear Bible
Actually, the Scriptures are indeed alive. I Peter 1:23 (the verse you are referring to) refers to the word with reference to the gospel, as the context of the passage shows.
1 Peter 1:23 for you have been born again (present tense) not of seed which is perishable but imperishable, that is, through the living and enduring word (logos) of God. 24] For, "All flesh is like grass, and all its glory like the flower of grass. The grass withers, and the flower falls off, 25] but the word (rhéma) of the Lord endures forever." And this is the word (rhéma) which was preached to you.
1 Peter 1:24-25 is a quote of Isaiah 40:8 The grass withers, the flower fades, But the word of our God stands forever.
Rhéma in 1 Peter 1:25 means the spoken word and refers to the gospel mentioned in verse 12.1 Peter 1:12 It was revealed to them that they were not serving themselves, but you, in these things which now have been announced to you through those who preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven-- things into which angels long to look.
The gospel, whether spoken or written (Scripture), is equally alive.
In John 6:63 Jesus said that the words which He had previously spoken (and which are preserved in the Scriptures) are spirit and are life. This was a reference to the gospel message which He had just given. By the ministry of the Holy Spirit, the words of Jesus provide life. Jesus' words are no less alive as written Scripture than when He spoke them.
John 6:63 "It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.
To which Peter replied in John 6:68 Simon Peter answered, "Lord, who will we go to? You have the words of eternal life. Peter knew that Jesus' words are life giving.
Well, just to chime in. The many times the phrase ‘the word’ occurs in the Gospel records it usually means the ‘the Gospel message’ (e.g. Mk. 2:2; 4:33; 16:20; Lk. 3:2; Jn. 12:48; 14:24; Acts 4:4; 11:19). It does not mean ‘the whole bible’. Elsewhere in the NT the use of " the word" support the message motif: " word of God" ..." word of the Kingdom" ..." word of the cross"… “word of Christ”. These phrases are very often used concerning the Gospel about Christ. See also. Col. 3:16; cp. Matt. 13:19; John 5:24; Acts 19:10; 1 Thess. 1:8.
Yes, it is the actual conclusion. What do you not understand about the very simple and clear fact that both Jesus and the Bible are called 'the (W)word of God'? You've been shown from Scripture that the phrase, 'the (W)word of God' is not used only for Christ.
John applies the phrase 'the Word of God' to Jesus because He is the revealed Person of the Trinity and reveals the Father.
The Bible is the word of God because it reveals God, reveals Jesus who Himself is the Second Person of the Trinity, and reveals God's plan to man.
Mike, I wasn't going to respond again, but you keep saying that people are ignoring the bible verses you put forth in your OP. But the simple fact is that neither those passages, nor nowhere else in the Bible is the Bible -- a collection of writings by various human authors, voted on by various other humans as to which writings should be included in the collection and which shouldn't, leaving us with different collections which are called the Bible depending on who you speak to -- nowhere are these Bibles called the word of God.
So, when you try to equate "the Bible" to the word of God and say that it is, for all practical purposes, one and the same as God, your reasoning ends up in a pile of mess.
The Word, as I see it, is the creative power of God. I can accept that this power was abiding in the person of Jesus, and I can accept that this creative power abides in the good news contained in your bible (just as I believe that creative power abides in any words that are true and life-giving wherever those words may be found). But to say that the collection of books itself IS the word of God makes zero sense and leaves you with a mess when you follow your own reasoning through to it's conclusion, because then you have to equate the Bible to GOD. You deny that conclusion, and I understand that. But then you ought to be willing to acknowledge that your reasoning is flawed when it doesn't match the conclusion you wish to reach.
Only a WHO can be alive and breathing, Mike. Don't be disingenuous. Scripture and the Bible can NOT.
As usual you refuse to believe what the Bible says. I Peter 1:23 refers to the gospel message which is said to be alive. You don't even care that Jesus Himself said in John 6:63 that His words are life. A reference to the gospel message.
Again, whether spoken or written (Scripture), the gospel message is alive.
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