Our new relationship to the law. (Jehovah, Mormons, preacher, translate)
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I am inclined to give you a second admonition but will not do so at this time.
As long as you do not accept the reality that the Bible Is the word of God in its entirety; not just that it contains it; but that the whole of scripture is inspired by the Holy Spirit and is therefore absolute truth;
We cannot have any common ground.
Your kjv bible is full of error so how can it be accepted in its entirety be the word of God ? Elijah called down fire from heaven, Jesus rebuked the disciples for suggesting it. Which is the word of God of the 2 ?
Your kjv bible is full of error so how can it be accepted in its entirety be the word of God ? Elijah called down fire from heaven, Jesus rebuked the disciples for suggesting it. Which is the word of God of the 2 ?
Elijah called fire down from heaven in self-defense (because the men of Jezebel were after him).
The disciples wanted to call down fire from heaven in judgment of the Samaritans for that they were not willing to receive Jesus into their homes for that his face was set like a flint to go to Jerusalem.
Jesus rebuked His disciples because He did not come to destroy men's lives but to save them.
In Elijah's case, his own life was preserved from persecution of Jezebel by the fact that he called down fire from heaven.
I would say that you have three fingers pointing back at you (Matthew 7:1-5, Luke 6:41-42)...and that there is really no hope for you for as long as you continue to reject what Jesus did for you on the Cross as an appeasement of the wrath and justice of a holy God concerning your sins.
You must recognize, first and foremost, that God does indeed have negative emotions concerning the sins that you have committed in your life;
And, secondly, that God's justice and wrath against your sin will only be satisfied in one of two ways:
1) in God the Father pouring out His wrath and justice on His only begotten Son instead of you; or,
2) in God the Father pouring out His wrath and justice on you by casting you into the lake of fire on your day of judgment (Revelation 20:15); which is defined as being tormented day and night for ever and ever (Revelation 20:10)
You worship and revere an EVIL God, JBF. The God of Jesus Christ would NEVER have such wrath and vengeance, especially not everlasting wrath and vengeance on anyone for any reason. Jesus as God would NEVER have cursed our newly created progenitors and their descendants in perpetuity for a single act of disobedience!
He certainly would not have continued His wrath against us until He could scourge and crucify His own innocent Son (who is His incarnate self) sufficiently to appease His wrath and forgive us for it!!! Belief in the saving grace of what Jesus did on the Cross is NOT foolishness. But that interpretation of the Cross is NOT just foolishness, it is unbelievably absurd and preposterous!!!
Elijah called fire down from heaven in self-defense (because the men of Jezebel were after him).
The disciples wanted to call down fire from heaven in judgment of the Samaritans for that they were not willing to receive Jesus into their homes for that his face was set like a flint to go to Jerusalem.
Jesus rebuked His disciples because He did not come to destroy men's lives but to save them.
In Elijah's case, his own life was preserved from persecution of Jezebel by the fact that he called down fire from heaven.
Just for starters, Explain why it uses the word hell for the following Hades, Sheol Tartarus and Gehenna.
If there is no error in it also explain why you would use other translations, you even said it was good to read other translations, why would you do that if the kjv is flawless in its translation. You do not come across very sincere when you keep contradicting yourself.
Just for starters, Explain why it uses the word hell for the following Hades, Sheol Tartarus and Gehenna.
If there is no error in it also explain why you would use other translations, you even said it was good to read other translations, why would you do that if the kjv is flawless in its translation. You do not come across very sincere when you keep contradicting yourself.
Since Sheol, Hades, Tartarus and Gehenna are all sub-sections of hell, tell me how translating them as hell is a mistranslation.
Of course the kjv is infallible and we can also gain added insight into the meaning of the kjv by looking at other translations. It is not that the newer translations take precedence over the kjv. If there is any kind of discrepancy, the kjv trumps other translations every time.
You worship and revere an EVIL God, JBF. The God of Jesus Christ would NEVER have such wrath and vengeance, especially not everlasting wrath and vengeance on anyone for any reason. Jesus as God would NEVER have cursed our newly created progenitors and their descendants in perpetuity for a single act of disobedience!
He certainly would not have continued His wrath against us until He could scourge and crucify His own innocent Son (who is His incarnate self) sufficiently to appease His wrath and forgive us for it!!! Belief in the saving grace of what Jesus did on the Cross is NOT foolishness. But that interpretation of the Cross is NOT just foolishness, it is unbelievably absurd and preposterous!!!
I worship and revere the God of the Bible, who says that He will shew Himself forward to those who are froward (Psalms 18:25-26).
He does not shew Himself froward to me; but He shews Himself froward to you as He describes Himself in the Holy Bible for a very specific reason.
Since Sheol, Hades, Tartarus and Gehenna are all sub-sections of hell, tell me how translating them as hell is a mistranslation.
Of course the kjv is infallible and we can also gain added insight into the meaning of the kjv by looking at other translations. It is not that the newer translations take precedence over the kjv. If there is any kind of discrepancy, the kjv trumps other translations every time.
because ancients knew what each part designated for and what to expect , we hardy understand that things.
Since Sheol, Hades, Tartarus and Gehenna are all sub-sections of hell, tell me how translating them as hell is a mistranslation.
Of course the kjv is infallible and we can also gain added insight into the meaning of the kjv by looking at other translations. It is not that the newer translations take precedence over the kjv. If there is any kind of discrepancy, the kjv trumps other translations every time.
Well first of all they all mean different things. So how is it possible to get the essence of what it is implying by using the word hell for all 4 of them.
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