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Dr. F.W. Farrar, author of The Life of Christ and The Life and Work of St. Paul, as well as books about Greek grammar and syntax, writes in The Eternal Hope (p. 198), "That the adjective is applied to some things which are "endless" does not, of course, for one moment prove that the word itself meant 'endless;' and to introduce this rendering into many passages would be utterly impossible and absurd." In his book, Mercy and Judgment, Dr. Farrar states (p. 378), "Since aion meant 'age,' aionios means, properly, 'belonging to an age,' or 'age-long,' and anyone who asserts that it must mean 'endless' defends a position which even Augustine practically abandoned twelve centuries ago. Even if aion always meant 'eternity,' which is not the case in classic or Hellenistic Greek-aionios could still mean only 'belonging to eternity' and not 'lasting through it.'"
Lange's Commentary American Edition (vol. V, p. 48), on Ecclesiastes chapter 1 verse 4, in commenting upon the statement "The earth abideth forever" says, "The preacher, in contending with the universalist, or restorationist, would commit an error, and, it may be, suffer a failure in his argument, should he lay the whole stress of it on the etymological or historical significance of the words, aion, aionios, and attempt to prove that, of themselves, they necessarily carry the meaning of endless duration." On page 45 of the same work, Dr. Taylor Lewis says: "The Greek aiones and aiones ton aionon, the Latin secula, and secula seculorum, the Old Saxon, or Old English of Wicliffe, to worldis or worldis (Heb. XIII 21), or our more modern phrase, for ever and ever, wherever the German ewig, was originally a noun denoting age or a vast period, just like the Greek, Latin, and Hebrew words corresponding to it."
Does he include a section on being in danger of eternal damnation as Jesus indicated ?
mk 3:
28Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme: 29But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation.
It's ironic how "mercy" is all over the scriptures for the living but somehow it is presumed to disappear in the afterlife even though His mercy endures to the ages of the ages - ironically just as long as His punishments do.
Well you must be reading a different bible or your definition of mercy is different from mine because it is clear "God judgeth the righteous, and GOD is angry with the wicked every day." (Psalm 7:11). God shows His mercy on us; the believers and unbelievers evidenced by us still being here as He provides food, clothing, shelter, sun, stable ground etc.... "Godsends the rain for the righteous and the unrighteous alike" (Matthew 5:45)
Question since you believe that one can repent in the afterlife which you have no scripture to support other than the ones you assume do, what is the "lamb book of life" who is in it and what if your name is not in it. Could we safely presume anyone whose name is written in this book was “saved before the foundation of the world”? If all are saved then why have this book? Where is scripture that man will have a change of heart in death when they didn't in life when the bible clearly speaks man is at enmity with God.
The parable of the Rich man and Lazarus from Jesus Himself. Witnessing of the Scriptures is sufficient for salvation for those who believe it, and no other revelation will bring about salvation to those who do not.
(Luke 16:31) 31 “He said to him, ‘If they do not listen to Moses and the Prophets, they will not be convinced even if someone rises from the dead."
Now magically they will believe even when Jesus Himself said, they won't. Tell me what power in the universe will perform such a feat when God Himself says, it is not possible?
Last edited by Fundamentalist; 06-23-2009 at 10:41 AM..
At Romans 16:25, the ASV reads, "Now to him that is able to establish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery which has been kept in silence through times eternal." If this verse is teaching of a mystery kept in silence through "times eternal," the mystery would never have been made known. The context in which this verse lies shows that aiÖnios, eonian, cannot be referring to "eternal" or "endless" time, for the verse following (v. 26) says: "but is now manifested." If we are to understand "eternal" to refer to unlimited time, then how could the mystery now be manifested? The KJV says, "which has been kept secret since the world began, but is now manifested." The translators recognized that limited time was in view.
Thus briefly would we summarize the conclusions we have arrived at. The facts of revelation regarding the eons having been early obscured and lost, and the Greek Church having declined, the Latin Church, with its own version, rose into prominence. The Latin version was only a translation, and was therefore not inspired. It changed the import of certain very important inspired time-words as found in the Greek, and gave them a different shade of meaning. The effect was sufficient to produce an utterly distorted outlook on the entire future, and to make God appear to be at one and the same time both a loving Father and a cruel and capricious monster-in fact, no God at all.
Mark 3: 29but whoever may speak evil in regard to the Holy Spirit hath not forgiveness -- to the age, but is in danger of age-during judgment;' (YLT)
God bless.
mk 3:
28Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme: 29But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation.
Mark 3: 29but whoever may speak evil in regard to the Holy Spirit hath not forgiveness -- to the age, but is in danger of age-during judgment;' (YLT)
God bless.
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