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There is something I have been thinking about lately!! It involves the bible and mistranslation. The problem I have is that many say that this "word" was mistranslated, or that "word" was mistranslated. Of course whatever was mistranslated was the words that disagree or disprove their own beliefs. While everything that says what they want it to say is the "DIVINE" word of God!! I am sorry people but it you cannot have it both ways. The book was either completely mistranslated or completely divine. Of course, I do not mean every word being mistranslated when I say completely. But one must remember that when one word is translated wrong, then preceding, and following words and verses also must be wrong or the story would not make sense!! If someone could, please indulge me!! For I totally do not understand this concept of only certain words being mistranslated and the rest being divine. Again, God wrote His book either you believe that or not!!!
Yes, the Bible is the inspired Word of God. Inspired. The thing is Almost2l8, there ARE some words that have been mistranslated and it is those words that have completely changed my heart and mind about Universal Reconciliation. This is a BIG deal. Mistranslated words ARE a huge deal. It completely changes the meanings of "hell" and "eternal". My advice is to look into these mistranslated words like I have and come to your own conclusion. I bet you'll see things differently.
Here is a very, very, simple, "benign" mistranslation, or perhaps you can just call it an error. Look:
NIV Matt 23:34 You blind guides! You strain out a gnat but swallow a camel.
KJV Matt 23:24 Ye blind guides, which strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel.
So what is it that was said here? Straining out a gnat brings a completely different meaning than straining at a gnat. Straining at a gnat doesn't even make sense. The idea behind this verse is that the pharisees were being very picky on small things, while ignoring larger matters. (ie. like straining a bug out of their wine, while ignoring the camel they were swallowing).
Now this is a very subtle error that has been in the KJV for hundreds of years, and still has not been corrected (although the NKJV has corrected it). This should put to rest the idea that any English translation we have is completely innerant, or that mistranslations cannot have happened. 99% of the time the English translations we have are OK, but we need to be aware that sometimes we need to investigate the original Greek or Hebrew.
Had these two verses been properly translated they would not contradict each other:
Eph 3:21 Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen.
Mat 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
Here are the same two verses properly translated without contradictions:
Mat 24:3 Now at His sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to Him privately, saying, "Tell us, when will these things be? And what is the sign of Thy presence and of the conclusion of the eon?
Eph 3:21 to Him be the glory in the ecclesia and in Christ Jesus for all the generations of the eon of the eons! Amen!
Now given that errors and mistranslations can and do occur, what do we do when get to a more weighty subject like the idea of "eternal hell"? This is certainly more important than straining "at" or "out" a gnat.
These are different versions of English Bible translations.
KJV: contains the word "hell" 54 times.
NKJV: contains the word "hell" 35 times.
NIV: contains the word "hell" 14 times.
YLT: contains the word "hell" 0 times.
CLT: contains the word "hell" 0 times.
Why is there such disparity in how this word "hell" is translated? Did God inspire the KJV to talk about "hell" more than the other bibles? Which one is God's word on the matter of "hell"? Why is the word "hell" not in some bibles? Do you see a problem here?
Had these two verses been properly translated they would not contradict each other:
Eph 3:21 Unto him be glory in the church by Christ Jesus throughout all ages, world without end. Amen.
Mat 24:3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world?
Here are the same two verses properly translated without contradictions:
Mat 24:3 Now at His sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to Him privately, saying, "Tell us, when will these things be? And what is the sign of Thy presence and of the conclusion of the eon?
Eph 3:21 to Him be the glory in the ecclesia and in Christ Jesus for all the generations of the eon of the eons! Amen!
Yes. Mistranslations lead to verses having a forced meaning, sometimes rendering the verse to be complete nonsense:
KJV Jonah 2:6 I went down to the bottoms of the mountains; the earth with her bars was about me for ever: yet hast thou brought up my life from corruption, O LORD my God.
Was Jonah really barred "forever"? Wasn't he just in the fish for 3 days?
YLT gives a more sane reading:
Jonah 2:6 To the cuttings of mountains I have come down, The earth, her bars [are] behind me to the age. And Thou bringest up from the pit my life, O Jehovah my God.
I believe the books of the bible were written by good men. inspired men, men who believed in the creator and men who were learned enough to also write down the ancient stories told generation after generation by other inspired people about the ONE creator, not the many different Gods people were worshipping and sacrificing to..
In my own opinion (which of course I do not feel any obligation to force on anyone), the bible as it has been translated over and over again is mans word, inspired men, but mans words...
Gods word is written in our hearts..And no, I do not pick and choose what to believe about the scriptures..I leave that to the Holy Spirit everytime I open the bible I ask for His guidance and His interpretations of the inspirational writings of man..
There is something I have been thinking about lately!! It involves the bible and mistranslation. The problem I have is that many say that this "word" was mistranslated, or that "word" was mistranslated. Of course whatever was mistranslated was the words that disagree or disprove their own beliefs. While everything that says what they want it to say is the "DIVINE" word of God!! I am sorry people but it you cannot have it both ways. The book was either completely mistranslated or completely divine. Of course, I do not mean every word being mistranslated when I say completely. But one must remember that when one word is translated wrong, then preceding, and following words and verses also must be wrong or the story would not make sense!! If someone could, please indulge me!! For I totally do not understand this concept of only certain words being mistranslated and the rest being divine. Again, God wrote His book either you believe that or not!!!
GOD BLESS!!!
DALE
I disagree with significant mistranslation issues, even though I argued from that point of view for a while to see if it had any merit.
It doesn't, all issues are issues of intepretation and context.
Aionios is the primary one to talk about.
It pertains to the age in an absolute sense and is everlasting in the abstract sense (how we can percieve time).
For instance, the phrase "That stop light took forever" We all know that we are not talking absolutely forever, but how we perceived time at the moment. While enduring the horribly long stop light, you could not absolutely know when it was going to change.
When your favorite show only last 30 mins you want more, it went by very quickly. Try holding a heavy book in your hand and stretch out your arm at a right angle from your body for 30 mins.
This is why it is still important to teach good behavior and righteousness.
I certainly do not rely on arguments such as mistraslation, they are not necessary at all.
Yes, the Bible is the inspired Word of God. Inspired. The thing is Almost2l8, there ARE some words that have been mistranslated and it is those words that have completely changed my heart and mind about Universal Reconciliation. This is a BIG deal. Mistranslated words ARE a huge deal. It completely changes the meanings of "hell" and "eternal". My advice is to look into these mistranslated words like I have and come to your own conclusion. I bet you'll see things differently.
Wait Ilene, did you change from a non UR to a universalist when I was not looking?
Now given that errors and mistranslations can and do occur, what do we do when get to a more weighty subject like the idea of "eternal hell"? This is certainly more important than straining "at" or "out" a gnat.
These are different versions of English Bible translations.
KJV: contains the word "hell" 54 times.
NKJV: contains the word "hell" 35 times.
NIV: contains the word "hell" 14 times.
YLT: contains the word "hell" 0 times.
CLT: contains the word "hell" 0 times.
Why is there such disparity in how this word "hell" is translated? Did God inspire the KJV to talk about "hell" more than the other bibles? Which one is God's word on the matter of "hell"? Why is the word "hell" not in some bibles? Do you see a problem here?
Yes, I do see a problem!! And it's not called mistranslation. It's called misinterperatation.
And Ilene, I have looked into mistranslations, and what do I see?? Man messing with the WORD OF GOD!!!
NOT GOOD!!!
GOD BLESS!!!
DALE
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