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- Christians having tried to adapt religious obediance within
the instruction of Scholars.
To teach their The Old and New Testaments as
'the inerrant infalible Word Of God' ?
Believing, 'ALL scripture is
given by inspiration [breath] of God..' ? - 2 Tim.2:16
Actually fails the Genesis understanding
that God breathed into Adam.
Which neither made him infalible nor inerrant.
Proves God could breathe without commanding anything.
For if scripture wasn't falible to inerrancy?
Then why would God have to provide 'The New Better Covenant'?
So, 'ALL scripure is given by inspiration of God
and profitable for Doctine...'
But not ALL scripture is Doctrine.
Although chrisians have had to accept
such differences in the narratives of 'The Four Gospels'.
They teach every word from the Apostle Paul's mouth
was the Infalible Inerrant Words Of God.
More to control than to console.
Falsehood is always revealed by it's hypocrisy.
When in Paul's own letters it's proved
he'd not spoke from God on many accounts. Either not as a witness.
Or professing to speak in 'customs' and 'traditions'.
By his own 'desire' for men and women. - 1 Tm.2:8-11
As of what he himself would not 'permit' of women. v.12
Commanding Women to be Judged by brethern
as under The Law. - 1Cor.14:34
Even professing an exact order of those who
saw Jesus after He was raised from the dead the third day.
which not only didn't Paul mention Mary first of all.
Paul did mention Mary at all. - 1Cor.15
Well, apparently, God did not want any part of "man" (Abraham/David's lineage) in Jesus but needed Mary to bring Jesus. Because, that was the only way Jesus could be born out of "sin"? As interesting as that sounds, let us not forget that this idea of God, and the idea that the Bible is infallible word of His, was delivered by sinners. The more I look into deistic, mythological aspects used and abused within Christianity, the more amusing they turn out to be.
Well, apparently, God did not want any part of "man" (Abraham/David's lineage) in Jesus but needed Mary to bring Jesus. Because, that was the only way Jesus could be born out of "sin"? A
good synopsis.
Joseph and Mary were both of the line of David, as well--so he is qualified to be a King of the line of David.
Joseph and Mary were both of the line of David, as well--so he is qualified to be a King of the line of David.
They were related? Anyway, I don't think Jewish customs dictated passing down of lineage thru a woman. But regardless, I thought the idea of virgin birth was to skip that whole "all men are sinners" debacle. What makes women immune to that?
I'm confused. I thought G-d was Jesus' father? What does Joseph have to do with this discussion, since "virgin birth" Chrstians say Joseph was not the father? And Mary's lineage matters not to determine Jesus' tribe, as tribe is indicated only by the father. Last I checked, G-d was not from the tribe of Judah (of which King David also decended).
TheoGeek, you have a problem with your theory here. Are there any others here who can explain what TheoGeek is unable to explain himself?
They were related? Anyway, I don't think Jewish customs dictated passing down of lineage thru a woman. But regardless, I thought the idea of virgin birth was to skip that whole "all men are sinners" debacle. What makes women immune to that?
If you go back several generations, they were of the same line. But you are correct--traditionally, the Hebrew line was only through the father.
If you go back several generations, they were of the same line. But you are correct--traditionally, the Hebrew line was only through the father.
Still doesn't answer why women would be immune from "sin". Wasn't that advertised as the whole premise for a virgin birth? God either wanted Abraham/David lineage (who would fall into the sinners category) or He did not. Which was it?
Still doesn't answer why women would be immune from "sin". Wasn't that advertised as the whole premise for a virgin birth? God either wanted Abraham/David lineage (who would fall into the sinners category) or He did not. Which was it?
Eve was created to be Adam's helper. Man was created as the "head" of the woman. The apostle Paul states that we sinned through Adam...but it was actually Eve that ate of the fruit first. Adam was there--he could have stopped her, but he didn't. As a consequence, we inherit a sinful nature via our earthly fathers.
Eve was created to be Adam's helper. Man was created as the "head" of the woman. The apostle Paul states that we sinned through Adam...but it was actually Eve that ate of the fruit first. Adam was there--he could have stopped her, but he didn't. As a consequence, we inherit a sinful nature via our earthly fathers.
So, Eve was spared of sinful nature/inheritance? Really? Where can we see evidence of that in the Bible? If anything, I see a mention of God's wrath on Eve. But then, there's always a chance that Mary's lineage traces to another tribe, like one where Cain showed up to marry?
So, Eve was spared of sinful nature/inheritance? Really? Where can we see evidence of that in the Bible? If anything, I see a mention of God's wrath on Eve. But then, there's always a chance that Mary's lineage traces to another tribe, like one where Cain showed up to marry?
I think you're correct about your critique - what made Marry "sinless"?
Later theologians would create the idea of the Immaculate Conception - which had nothing to do with Jesus, lest it be confused: only by extension! No - MARY was conceived miraculously, and not from sinful flesh. That is how later Theologians handled your question. They just pushed it back a generation lol.
I think their answer was silly, but hey...
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