How do Christian churches justify performing same-sex marriages/blessings? (Micah, the passion, service)
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Okay, what is this nonsense? Throw whatever point you're trying to make in with what you're typing from now on, please.
Save it, unless you're going to show exactly where in history "arsenokoites" ever meant homosexuals.
that is a bit like saying 'prove God does not exist'
you are the one making the claims that homosexuality in the Bible does not mean homosexuality - and just provide a useless link as evidence.
where can you show us that Paul did not actually mean what he was saying, and that somehow you can squeeze a same-sex marriage into a Christian church?
I very much doubt you can, and all you have is lame GBLT propaganda. (as usual)
that is a bit like saying 'prove God does not exist'
Nonsense. Either there are records of the word meaning "homosexuality" or there aren't. If they exist, they would be physical, tangible, or at least for the sake of this conversation visible. Now where are they?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kenneth-Kaunda
you are the one making the claims that homosexuality in the Bible does not mean homosexuality - and just provide a useless link as evidence.
No no no no, I'm the one saying it's possible you are wrong. Those who insist that "homosexuality" is the original meaning carry the burden of proof, get it right.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Kenneth-Kaunda
you've posted this garbage ad nauseum on the fourm.
give it a rest, it's all just GBLT propaganda that has no value in this thread.
Excuse you. I submitted that for other people who might actually take it into consideration. You don't speak for everyone here.
Heresies. The context is the serpent in the garden of Eden, sodomizing-raping Eve and Adam. This usage gives no basis for concluding that arsenokoites refers to homosexuality. Naas is the serpent, from the word Naas, referring to the Naasseni, the people who call themselves Gnostics.
“Naas, however, has committed sin, for he went in unto Eve, deceiving her, and debauched her; and (such an act as) this is a violation of law. He, however, likewise went in unto Adam, and had unnatural [meaning nonprocreative or interspecies] intercourse with him; and this is itself also a piece of turpitude, whence have arisen adultery and sodomy.”
does it not strike you as relevant somehow, that having anal sex with a man will always be nonprocreative?
seeing as your link was from: gaychristian101.com, it can hardly be said to be un-biased!
There were three links, if I remember correctly. And since you have yet to provide any, it is your implication that the word refers to homosexuality that I find to be supported by a bias alone.
Picking and choosing the very few statements from a link that you can argue with does not prove your argument by a long shot. As I said earlier...
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vic 2.0
Those who insist that "homosexuality" is the original meaning carry the burden of proof.
Either there are records of the word meaning "homosexuality" or there aren't. If they exist, they would be physical, tangible, or at least for the sake of this conversation visible. Now where are they?
But it's all fine by me. The more you bump this thread to the top of the forum without meeting this challenge, the more posters get to see how little evidence you can provide for your stance
Gee, you mean like I did?...And even in the Hebrew, greek and Aramaic, if you want, it still condemns homosexuality...
No it doesn't. Maybe your issue is you don't know the meaning of homosexuality. Lesbians are homosexuals too, and the Old Testament never ever mentions them.
Which has absolutely nothing to do with gays, and everything to do with heterosexual temple prostitutes. So much for your claim of having the foggiest clue what the Bible says. Leviticus also ONLY applied to the ancient Israelites. It has zero bearing on anyone today.
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