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Wouldn't judgment be personal accountability ?_____ Judgment then is, or may or may not be, condemnatory.
Condemnatory judgment's purpose is the utter loss of one's life.- 2nd Peter 3 v 7 B; John 3 vs 15,18
Condemnatory would be executional judgment.- Isaiah 11 vs 3,4; Rev. 19 vs 11,15
Condemnatory judgement passed on Satan.- Hebrews 2 v 14 B; Rev. 21 v 8
But what do the scriptures tell us about Gods judgments?
they tell us that they are so the earth will know rightiousness, thus Gods judgments are all corrective in nature.
whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
This simple truth about salvation through faith is repeated some 200 times in the Bible, so there would be no misunderstanding. Somehow the urs manage to ignore them all.
What the verse says: He that believes has life.
What you are trying to get it to say: He that believes in this life only has life
It's repeated "200 times" and you read into the text things that aren't there 200 times.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4
What did Matthew believe at Matthew 20 v 28 ?_____
What did Isaiah write at Isaiah 53 v 11 but that God's servant [ Jesus ] would justify MANY, and does Not say all.
You asked me the same question in another thread and you ignored my answer.
I can show you verses in the Bible where many means everyone:
and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors. Isaiah 53:12. Did Jesus only die for the sins of some people? No, he died for the sins of everyone. And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.1st John 2:2
But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead...Romans 5:15. Did Adam cause death to reign to only few people? No death by Adam reigned to everyone. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. Romans 5:14
Now read verses 18-20
Therefore as by the offence of one (Adam) judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one (Jesus) the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. For as by one man's (Adam) disobedience many (everyone) were made sinners, so by the obedience of one (Jesus) shall many (everyone) be made righteous. Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound
How does the meaning of the word all change from everyone to few in the same sentence? How does the word many change from everyone to few in the same sentence? The verse is parallel, if the first many and all is everyone then so is the second. Christ will justify and make righteous the same "all" and "many" that Adam condemned and made sinful.
Verse 14 says that the work of the first Adam is the figure of him that was to come. Did anyone raise their hand and volunteer to be made a sinner by his disobedience? Did the first Adam merely make condemnation possible for everyone or did he actually condemn everyone? So why do you say that the second Adam merely makes justification possible for everyone but won't actually justify everyone if the work of the first Adam is figurative of the work of the second according to verse 14?
Especially if Paul says grace MUCH more abound over sin in verse 20. Or do you believe that Adams sin much more abounds over Jesus blood, and that Adam's sin condemns more than Jesus blood saves?
And don't ignore the fact that verse 19 says "MANY" were made sinners.
Last edited by Sir. Noel; 12-29-2013 at 12:39 AM..
There is no way around it Twin, the preaching turns out to be the same. Again, does God need my permission to save me?
You ask the wrong question. Jesus saved us at the cross, no permission needed, God is sovereign. This gift of salvation is for every human, no cost, it is free, everyone can take it. It is by faith on Jesus Christ, who died for my sins and is alive, so I can receive Him and make Him Lord of my life, my Savior and my King, whom I follow. I believe in His words, including that many (that speaks about religious people) that want to come into His kingdom (go to Heaven) will fail, and only few will succeed. I do not believe anyone of you folks, who are you, what value have your human reasoning? If anyone is in fear of hell, is it because of he cannot overcome sinful life? We need faith on Jesus, who defeated sin and death at the cross, fast and pray and believe the word of God and not the lies of the enemy. Jesus does not destroy sin in those who love darkness more than light, we have free will to choose.
What the verse says: He that believes has life.
What you are trying to get it to say: He that believes in this life only has life
It's repeated "200 times" and you read into the text things that aren't there 200 times.
You asked me the same question in another thread and you ignored my answer.
I can show you verses in the Bible where many means everyone:
and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors. Isaiah 53:12. Did Jesus only die for the sins of some people? No, he died for the sins of everyone. And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.1st John 2:2
But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead...Romans 5:15. Did Adam cause death to reign to only few people? No death by Adam reigned to everyone. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. Romans 5:14
Now read verses 18-20
Therefore as by the offence of one (Adam) judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one (Jesus) the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. For as by one man's (Adam) disobedience many (everyone) were made sinners, so by the obedience of one (Jesus) shall many (everyone) be made righteous. Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound
How does the meaning of the word all change from everyone to few in the same sentence? How does the word many change from everyone to few in the same sentence? The verse is parallel, if the first many and all is everyone then so is the second. Christ will justify and make righteous the same "all" and "many" that Adam condemned and made sinful.
Verse 14 says that the work of the first Adam is the figure of him that was to come. Did anyone raise their hand and volunteer to be made a sinner by his disobedience? Did the first Adam merely make condemnation possible for everyone or did he actually condemn everyone? So why do you say that the second Adam merely makes justification possible for everyone but won't actually justify everyone if the work of the first Adam is figurative of the work of the second according to verse 14?
Especially if Paul says grace MUCH more abound over sin in verse 20. Or do you believe that Adams sin much more abounds over Jesus blood, and that Adam's sin condemns more than Jesus blood saves?
And don't ignore the fact that verse 19 says "MANY" were made sinners.
It is right, that sin and death entered through Adam. Jesus, the second Adam, died for all the sins of this world, so all will be resurrected, the just and the unjust. The bible makes a clear separation. The just will not face the second death, but the wicked will end up in the lake of fire, which is destruction and not purification, they perish. But God loves the world, that anyone that believes on Jesus shall not perish, but have everlasting life. Their is everlasting life and damnation. I am sorry, not all are saved. Paul wanted to be rather condemned to save some Jews. He believed in UR?
What the verse says: He that believes has life.
What you are trying to get it to say: He that believes in this life only has life
It's repeated "200 times" and you read into the text things that aren't there 200 times.
Yes, in this life. Obviously. The Bible makes it clear that after we die, we are judged. It says nothing about after death 2nd or 3rd chances which you believe in. Catholics believe in purgatory, which is basically the same belief, but those beliefs are simply not supported by the Bible. You are trying to connect dots, and conclude some verses must support it, but the truth is that such important thing would be written in crystal clarity and repeated 200 times just like salvation through faith is. You are adding it to support your beliefs.
Originally Posted by Eusebius
Jesus gave Himself a ransom for all therefore
God will have all mankind to be saved (1Tim.2:4-6),
Quote:
Originally Posted by Matthew 4:4
Yes, ALL of mankind who are judged as righteous by the end of Jesus' millennial-long judgment day of reigning over earth.
- Revelation 20 vs 8,9
At what point are those of Revelation 2 v 10 are considered as saved since they have to be faithful until death?
What did Jesus say at Matthew 24 v 13 ?_________
Matthew 4:4, why didn't God say it this way:
"God will NOT have all mankind to be saved even though Christ gave Himself a ransom for all" (1 Tim.2:4-6 according to Matthew 4:4)?
1 Timothy 2:4-6 does not state it the way you do. Obviously God saving all mankind takes place at the end of the eons.
Revelation deals only with the next two eons: the 1000 year reign of Christ on earth and God and Christ reigning on the new earth. The apostle Paul saw beyond John's revelation. On the new earth many will be put into the second death. In 1 Corinthians 15:22-28 Paul sees all those in the second death coming out and God being All in all. Paul sees beyond John's revelation.
Here is your answer to your final question above:
Mat 24:13 Yet he who endures to the consummation, he shall be saved."
That is not Jesus giving a declaration to all mankind. It is ONLY for the Jewish believers. With us of the nations under GRACE we have it this way:
1Th_5:10 Who died for our sakes, that, whether we may be watching or drowsing, we should be living at the same time together with Him."
Do you see the difference?
God truly will save all mankind because Christ gave Himself a ransom for all (1 Tim.2:4-6). One who is ransomed MUST BE FREED. That is in the Bible.
The things that are not in the scriptures but for some reason those who believe in eternal torment insist are there.
1) unto you is born this day in the city of David a Savior from eternal hell, which is Christ The Lord.
How many of the people of Israel thought the coming Messiah was going to save them from eternal hell?...........diddly squat.
How many of them thought it was from sin?..........diddly squat
How many from their enemies?.............. Most of them
Which one did Jesus say it was?.....................
I think this may deserve a thread of its own, and the contradictory beliefs to justify eternal hell.
The above post needs repeated.
What did Peter tell the Jews on the day of Pentacost? Did he say "save yourselves from eternal hellfire and damnation? No. He said "Save yourselves from this untoward generation." No prophet in the O.T. nor John the Baptist, nor Christ nor any of His disciples nor Paul ever said "save yourselves from hell." No, not even once.
The Bible says "Christ came into the world to save sinners." All are sinners.
If Christ said: "I am going into the football game to win the game" but He lost the game, is He a winner or loser? If God does not save all mankind, God and Christ are eternal losers.
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