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I see,....and what source are you using to support this claim?
If you've ever actually read the New Testament, nowhere is the papacy mentioned. Peter was not the first Pope. Nor is the perpetual virginity of Mary or Mary as the queen of heaven mentioned. Those are Roman Catholic inventions, not biblical teachings. The Roman Catholic Church's conferring sainthood on certain people is likewise not biblical. Biblically speaking, every believer is a saint and not something to be conferred on certain individuals that the Roman Catholic Church thinks is worthy of sainthood. Prayers to the dead or to Mary is also not biblical.
If you've ever actually read the New Testament, nowhere is the papacy mentioned. Peter was not the first Pope. Nor is the perpetual virginity of Mary or Mary as the queen of heaven mentioned. Those are Roman Catholic inventions, not biblical teachings. The Roman Catholic Church's conferring sainthood on certain people is likewise not biblical. Biblically speaking, every believer is a saint and not something to be conferred on certain individuals that the Roman Catholic Church thinks is worthy of sainthood. Prayers to the dead or to Mary is also not biblical.
Is it possible that the Catholic Church modified the King James Bible as their primary scriptures?
Which came first...the Catholic Bible or King James?
Is it possible that the Catholic Church modified the King James Bible as their primary scriptures?
Which came first...the Catholic Bible or King James?
No …… The Catholic Church predated the King James Version of the bible by a long way
the Holy scriptures we collected together and kept by what came to be known as the Catholic Church (both Roman and orthodox) but they were not written by them
" “In that day I will summon my servant, Eliakim son of Hilkiah. I will clothe him with your robe and fasten your sash around him and hand your authority over to him. He will be a father to those who live in Jerusalem and to the people of Judah. I will place on his shoulder the key to the house of David; what he opens no one can shut, and what he shuts no one can open. I will drive him like a peg into a firm place; he will become a seat[a] of honor for the house of his father. All the glory of his family will hang on him: its offspring and offshoots—all its lesser vessels, from the bowls to all the jars."
I said in another thread a holy book that is trying to teach a person something should not be divisive enough to make one person believe and another person disbelieve. A book overseen by God would break free of the foibles of man's limited abilities to translate and in any language what the bible is trying to teach would be as clear as glass.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Vizio
Why is your opinion of such the standard? Is not a sovereign God allowed to do what he wants with his creation?
It just stands to reason that a god who wants people to believe in his son, Jesus would want to make his holy book as clear to understand and as free of confusion as possible in all these different translations. I mean if God's method for bringing people to Jesus is, "I'm going to makes these translations as confusing as possible so people have nothing but questions from one translation to the next" then I think God is doing an admirable job.
" “In that day I will summon my servant, Eliakim son of Hilkiah. I will clothe him with your robe and fasten your sash around him and hand your authority over to him. He will be a father to those who live in Jerusalem and to the people of Judah. I will place on his shoulder the key to the house of David; what he opens no one can shut, and what he shuts no one can open. I will drive him like a peg into a firm place; he will become a seat[a] of honor for the house of his father. All the glory of his family will hang on him: its offspring and offshoots—all its lesser vessels, from the bowls to all the jars."
No, it is not. The church, regardless of denomination or sect is nowhere mentioned in the Old Testament. Isaiah 22:20-24 to which you refer is a reference to Eliakim the son of Hilkiah and concerns Israel . . .not the church, and not the Roman Catholic Pope.
Last edited by Michael Way; 06-10-2022 at 04:39 PM..
No, it is not. The church, regardless of denomination or sect is nowhere mentioned in the Old Testament..
Sure it is - the most important part right there at Gen 14:18-20 . Bread and wine, priest of God Most High - who'd a thunkit?
Paul even goes into great detail reflecting back on this very thing in Hebrews 7 all thru to Hebrews 13, climaxing with :
"We have an altar from which those who serve the tabernacle have no right to eat." (Heb 13:10)
Sure it is - the most important part right there at Gen 14:18-20 . Bread and wine, priest of God Most High - who'd a thunkit?
Paul even goes into great detail reflecting back on this very thing in Hebrews 7 all thru to Hebrews 13, climaxing with :
"We have an altar from which those who serve the tabernacle have no right to eat." (Heb 13:10)
Again, the New Testament Church, the dispensation of the Church is not mentioned anywhere in the Old Testament. The Church-Age, the dispensation of grace was kept hidden during Old Testament times and not revealed until after Jesus had ascended into heaven. As Paul said in Ephesians 3:9 the administration of the mystery had been hidden in God for ages.
Hebrews 7-13 says nothing about the church being revealed or mentioned in the Old Testament/Hebrew Bible. Nor does Genesis 14.
If you don't understand the subject of dispensationalism you won't understand what I said above.
But, put two children on an island where they are fed, taught to read and allowed to grow WITHOUT any knowledge of ANY religious beliefs. Hand them a bible at, say, age 14 to read from cover to cover. What are the chances even one becomes a "Christian," at least in your vein or feels or sees the need to become one just from reading the bible alone?
Literacy has historically always grown dramatically in places where Christian missionaries have traveled.
So the kids do learn something of value.
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