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Are you serious??? You do know the RCC didn't exist in Paul's time, right? The ONLY scriptures Paul had to refer to, was the ones he grew up hearing every Shabbat in the temple, and that he studied night and day as a student of Gamaliel, grandson of Hillel. Peace
Again you are missing the point. the RCC accepted the Septuagint with the other books that were in it as their canon.
It was the Septuagint bible that Paul read and quoted from so again on what authority do you say Paul was only referring to the Jewish/protestant canon?
Again you are missing the point. the RCC accepted the Septuagint with the other books that were in it as their canon.
It was the Septuagint bible that Paul read and quoted from so again on what authority do you say Paul was only referring to the Jewish/protestant canon?
Well let's look at how the Jews felt about the Greek translation, and then you tell me that Hebrew speaking Jews used it in what was considered sacred contexts, ie. worship, teaching, ect. From Chabad....
"The Hellenistic king of Egypt was fascinated by the idea of the Torah, and ordered the sages to produce a translation. He was worried they might falsify something, so he made 72 sages sit in separate cubicles, so that each one would write an independent version. Miraculously, their translations tallied with each other, even when it came to delicate passages which could easily be misconstrued.
Nonetheless, the later Jewish sages commented that the day the Torah was translated into Greek “was as difficult for the Jewish people as the day when the Golden Calf was made, because the Torah cannot really be translated.”
The reason, has in part, to do with this simple fact.
Biblical Hebrew, also known as "Lashon Kodesh" (The Holy Tongue) is a unique language. It is the only language whose letters communicate meaning independent of the words they form.
In most languages letters don't have independent value. They don’t communicate any meaning. A letter is a symbol that indicates a sound (much like a musical note) and is only valuable when paired with other letters to form a word. Even then, it is the word that communicates meaning, not the letters. Peace
Well let's look at how the Jews felt about the Greek translation, and then you tell me that Hebrew speaking Jews used it in what was considered sacred contexts, ie. worship, teaching, ect. From Chabad....
"The Hellenistic king of Egypt was fascinated by the idea of the Torah, and ordered the sages to produce a translation. He was worried they might falsify something, so he made 72 sages sit in separate cubicles, so that each one would write an independent version. Miraculously, their translations tallied with each other, even when it came to delicate passages which could easily be misconstrued.
Nonetheless, the later Jewish sages commented that the day the Torah was translated into Greek “was as difficult for the Jewish people as the day when the Golden Calf was made, because the Torah cannot really be translated.”
The reason, has in part, to do with this simple fact.
Biblical Hebrew, also known as "Lashon Kodesh" (The Holy Tongue) is a unique language. It is the only language whose letters communicate meaning independent of the words they form.
In most languages letters don't have independent value. They don’t communicate any meaning. A letter is a symbol that indicates a sound (much like a musical note) and is only valuable when paired with other letters to form a word. Even then, it is the word that communicates meaning, not the letters. Peace
And if you ask the KJV only crowd they would say and have pretty much the same thing about all bibles that are not the KJV.
So that proves nothing.
However if we look at what bible Jesus quoted from, whether it is based on the Hebrew/Masorite text or the Septuagint we get this.
Lets play the sesame street game, one of these things is not like the other, can you guess which one?
Mark 7:6-7
He answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with*their*lips, but their heart is far from me.
Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching*for*doctrines the commandments of men.
Hebrew/Masorite text KJV
Wherefore the Lord said, Forasmuch as this people draw near*me*with their mouth, and with their lips do honour me, but have removed their heart far from me, and their fear toward me is taught by the precept of men:
Septuagint
*And the Lord has said, This people draw nigh to me with their mouth, and they honour me with their lips, but their heart is far from me: but in vain do they worship me, teaching the commandments and doctrines of men.
So which one of the two versions matches up with what Jesus says in Mark 7?
Oh and the reason the Jews hate the Septuagint is because the early church used the Septuagint to prove Jesus Christ was the Messiah and the Jews just could not have that.
And if you ask the KJV only crowd they would say and have pretty much the same thing about all bibles that are not the KJV.
So that proves nothing.
However if we look at what bible Jesus quoted from, whether it is based on the Hebrew/Masorite text or the Septuagint we get this.
Lets play the sesame street game, one of these things is not like the other, can you guess which one?
Mark 7:6-7
He answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with*their*lips, but their heart is far from me.
Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching*for*doctrines the commandments of men.
Hebrew/Masorite text KJV
Wherefore the Lord said, Forasmuch as this people draw near*me*with their mouth, and with their lips do honour me, but have removed their heart far from me, and their fear toward me is taught by the precept of men:
Septuagint
*And the Lord has said, This people draw nigh to me with their mouth, and they honour me with their lips, but their heart is far from me: but in vain do they worship me, teaching the commandments and doctrines of men.
So which one of the two versions matches up with what Jesus says in Mark 7?
Oh and the reason the Jews hate the Septuagint is because the early church used the Septuagint to prove Jesus Christ was the Messiah and the Jews just could not have that.
No, they hate the Greek language because it obscures the meaning, which anyone can see if they study Hebrew, in a hot second. Peace
No, they hate the Greek language because it obscures the meaning, which anyone can see if they study Hebrew, in a hot second. Peace
Then why did Jesus quote from the Greek Septuagint? I thought you said a Jew would not do that because they would not believe it to be sacred text, yet Jesus quoted it over what the Hebrew text said. Would that not indicate that Jesus believed the Septuagint was inspired scripture?
Then why did Jesus quote from the Greek Septuagint? I thought you said a Jew would not do that because they would not believe it to be sacred text, yet Jesus quoted it over what the Hebrew text said. Would that not indicate that Jesus believed the Septuagint was inspired scripture?
And if you ask the KJV only crowd they would say and have pretty much the same thing about all bibles that are not the KJV.
So that proves nothing.
However if we look at what bible Jesus quoted from, whether it is based on the Hebrew/Masorite text or the Septuagint we get this.
Lets play the sesame street game, one of these things is not like the other, can you guess which one?
Mark 7:6-7
He answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with*their*lips, but their heart is far from me.
Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching*for*doctrines the commandments of men.
Hebrew/Masorite text KJV
Wherefore the Lord said, Forasmuch as this people draw near*me*with their mouth, and with their lips do honour me, but have removed their heart far from me, and their fear toward me is taught by the precept of men:
Septuagint
*And the Lord has said, This people draw nigh to me with their mouth, and they honour me with their lips, but their heart is far from me: but in vain do they worship me, teaching the commandments and doctrines of men.
So which one of the two versions matches up with what Jesus says in Mark 7?
Oh and the reason the Jews hate the Septuagint is because the early church used the Septuagint to prove Jesus Christ was the Messiah and the Jews just could not have that.
Maybe those who penned the commentary quoted from the Septuagint instead of the Hebrew Scriptures...Considering that Jesus probably spoke Aramaic, not Greek, considering he was a poor carpenter...
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