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First, I'd like to know from which version of the Bible you got your quote. Because neither version I have reads that way at all. (no mention of "practicing homosexuality".) Or were you unaware that the Bible has been translated and re-translated from ancient languages many times throughout it's history? You are aware that it wasn't written in English, right?
What the other poster was stating is that it wasn't but a hundred years ago that scientists realized there is an actual difference between "homosexual acts" (which your Bible is actually referring to) and homosexuality itself. Even some heterosexuals are capable of "homosexual acts" whereas, while capable of "heterosexual acts", the homosexual is really only comfortable with loving someone of his/her own gender.
Instead of asking me about my translation, how about you just provide yours to disprove my quoted Scripture? I'm well aware that the Bible wasn't written in English. Your translation, please?
How did scientists "realize" this? Did they build a time machine to go back to the future? Difference between homosexual acts and homosexuality? Really....can you expound? Scholarly sources would be great, too.
It didn't take 200 years. I would venture to guess that blacks didn't even want to marry whites up until the time of our emancipation. Except perhaps for the slavemaster/slave fetish folks.
Yes it did. It was still illegal in some states in the US back in the 60's (ended in 1967 to be exact) where they had in their laws that prevented interracial marriages (mostly targeting blacks).
I don't know about you, but slave ownership has been around since the founding of our country and were freed with the 14th Amendment. That is over 200 years till it was finally abolished.
Yes it did. It was still illegal in some states in the US back in the 60's (ended in 1967 to be exact) where they had in their laws that prevented interracial marriages (mostly targeting blacks).
I don't know about you, but slave ownership has been around since the founding of our country and were freed with the 14th Amendment. That is over 200 years till it was finally abolished.
Saying it took 200 years is like saying slaves wanted to marry their owners but were prevented. So, you can't argue that point. You can only argue from the point when society became aware of this desire to marry different races.
In what way does same sex marriage change "the core foundation" of marriage? Unless one thinks marriage is only about having children, the "core foundation" remains the same - a relationship between the spouses that encourages cooperation in life decisions.
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Originally Posted by ChocLot
Wow; you say it doesn't change the core, yet you change it in your very post.
Funny you think that's a 'change' but don't bother to explain what it's a change from. I know that when I got married over 40 years ago, that was the core foundation of my marriage. So what are you saying I should have considered the "core foundation" of my marriage?
Saying it took 200 years is like saying slaves wanted to marry their owners but were prevented.
You obviously do not know your US history:
slaves in America were not considered citizens. They could not even MARRY their own people. A male black slave could not even marry a female black slave. They were often treated as breeding stock to make sure their slave owners would have new slaves to exploit. YES, they were prevented because of the LAW. They were prevented from marrying each other.
It took the passing of the 14th Amendment to finally have them recognized AS citizens. And as citizens, they could finally marry one another.
But, we still had laws in our books up until 1967 that prevented interracial marriages (and it was mostly targeted at Blacks). Many states still had bans against interracial marriages.
Even Kansas, home state of Barack Obama's mother and grandparents, banned interracial marriage, so her marriage to Barack Sr would have been illegal if she had returned to Kansas in 1961.
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So, you can't argue that point. You can only argue from the point when society became aware of this desire to marry different races.
The desire has always been there. Many immigrants who came to America were not allowed to marry outside their race because of laws in place.
slaves in America were not considered citizens. They could not even MARRY their own people. A male black slave could not even marry a female black slave. They were often treated as breeding stock to make sure their slave owners would have new slaves to exploit. YES, they were prevented because of the LAW. They were prevented from marrying each other.
It took the passing of the 14th Amendment to finally have them recognized AS citizens. And as citizens, they could finally marry one another.
But, we still had laws in our books up until 1967 that prevented interracial marriages (and it was mostly targeted at Blacks). Many states still had bans against interracial marriages.
Even Kansas, home state of Barack Obama's mother and grandparents, banned interracial marriage, so her marriage to Barack Sr would have been illegal if she had returned to Kansas in 1961.
The desire has always been there. Many immigrants who came to America were not allowed to marry outside their race because of laws in place.
Slaves did marry. In some instances it was encouraged by their owners because it was believed it would discourage them from running away. Citizenship is another topic altogether and is irrelevant to this discussion.
To say that the desire was always there is mighty presumptuous. Furthermore, it can not be proven, so I won't continue along this hypothetical path.
You, and many others, have still failed to show how any of this disproves my position that marriage is a covenant between man/woman. I give up asking for proof. I know now that I won't get it.
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Difference between homosexual acts and homosexuality? Really....can you expound? Scholarly sources would be great, too.
