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1Ti 2:4 Who desires all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
Isa 46:10 Telling from the beginning, the hereafter, and from aforetime, what has not yet been done. Saying, `All My counsel shall be confirmed, and all My desire will I do.'
Notice this OP actually says the word saved right in black and white.... and this verse says saved right in black and white.. The verse you quoted does not say the word saved so it is hard to say without interpretation that the meaning in it is saved....
I agree but then again when you translate it and take out all the greek words and read the sentence... it made the phrase grammatically incorrect which also made the portion you addressed seem to mean what you said it meant. But when the sentence is put forth in the correct order, it reads as the english bible... so it wasn't the greek language I wasn't getting it was how you translated each word without regard to where they went in the sentence. then used that to prove your point. Dangling participles!!!
That is because I only translated a couple of words, instead of doing the entire structure.
Don't get me wrong, I didn't see the need to go through the entire thing, when someone coudn't read it.
As, you also read, there are certain words that want translate back into english.
OK does what you are saying mean that everyone will eventually do the will of the father before they die here and now in this life?? Or are some (or all) going to have eternity to do his will?? (like after this life)
GOD BLESS!!!
ALMOST2L8
I cannot say that any scripture says "you have an eternity to do the will of the father" Maybe we do not, but I do not need to draw that conclusion at this time.
What I can say is this.
1C 12:3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and [that] no man can say that Jesus is Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
Phl 2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee bow, of [things] in heaven, and [things] in earth, and [things] under the earth;
Phl 2:11 And [that] every tongue confess that Jesus Christ [is] Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
This issue is not about what I think, it is really the implication of this compared to other verses.
If it is true that another verse actually means "Some will not enter the kingdom, then it simply presents a problem in scripture.
What would it mean if someone does something by the holy spirit? Nothing?
The scripture reads, no man can say Jesus is Lord except by the holy spirit.
And we have in philippians where every tongue confesses Jesus is Lord.
Well philippians is not saying with in it's words that they are confessing Jesus is lord by the holy spirit.
But considering 1 Corinthians I see the alignment between them.
What or when that entails beyond that is not up to me, what I see is a declaration of a great wonderful thing. You can decide it means whatever you like.
I already went over this. Yes, God desires that all men to be saved He died for all, but as I have shown you, all will not come to Jesus.
"You diligently study the Scriptures because you think that by them you possess eternal life. These are the Scriptures that testify about Me, yet you refuse to come to Me to have life." John 5:39
Alright, you have proven that I cannot believe the scripture in Isaiah.
That is because I only translated a couple of words, instead of doing the entire structure.
Don't get me wrong, I didn't see the need to go through the entire thing, when someone coudn't read it.
As, you also read, there are certain words that want translate back into english.
But you used the position of the phrase "is willing" out of place to determine it's value in interpretation.... That is what I was commenting on. If used in the right order it's value in interpretation changes.
Notice this OP actually says the word saved right in black and white.... and this verse says saved right in black and white.. The verse you quoted does not say the word saved so it is hard to say without interpretation that the meaning in it is saved....
Just a thought.
I'm not against intepretation, it is when intepretation contradicts and poses a problem.
I detail the problem, and what others respond is things that do not resolve the problem but only advances what they have already said.
The problem is still there. Perhaps they are wolves only attempting to prove scripture contradicts itself.
I cannot say that any scripture says "you have an eternity to do the will of the father" Maybe we do not, but I do not need to draw that conclusion at this time.
What I can say is this.
1C 12:3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and [that] no man can say that Jesus is Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
Phl 2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee bow, of [things] in heaven, and [things] in earth, and [things] under the earth;
Phl 2:11 And [that] every tongue confess that Jesus Christ [is] Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
This issue is not about what I think, it is really the implication of this compared to other verses.
If it is true that another verse actually means "Some will not enter the kingdom, then it simply presents a problem in scripture.
What would it mean if someone does something by the holy spirit? Nothing?
The scripture reads, no man can say Jesus is Lord except by the holy spirit.
And we have in philippians where every tongue confesses Jesus is Lord.
Well philippians is not saying with in it's words that they are confessing Jesus is lord by the holy spirit.
But considering 1 Corinthians I see the alignment between them.
What or when that entails beyond that is not up to me, what I see is a declaration of a great wonderful thing. You can decide it means whatever you like.
Quote:
Phl 2:10 That at the name of Jesus every knee bow, of [things] in heaven, and [things] in earth, and [things] under the earth;
Phl 2:11 And [that] every tongue confess that Jesus Christ [is] Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
These verses are saying that every knee shall bow and every tongue shall confess, which is right. Everyone must kneel before the glory of the Lord.
Where does it say in this scripture that all are being saved. All I see is them kneeling before Jesus.
Even demons trimble at the name of Jesus, but they are not goint into the Kingdom of Heaven.
Mark 5:1-9 Says that an evil spirit came and met Jesus that was inside of a man.
6When he saw Jesus from a distance, he ran and fell on his knees in front of him. 7He shouted at the top of his voice, "What do you want with me, Jesus, Son of the Most High God? Swear to God that you won't torture me!" 8For Jesus had said to him, "Come out of this man, you evil spirit!"
Now as you see was the man bowing or the evil spirit. We really can't say, because they both were bowing and we can't say which one was.
We know that it does not matter who you are, or what you are, you have to bow at the feet of Jesus, evil or not. Now, we know the evil spirit want be in the Kingdom of Heaven.
MATTHEW 20:28 Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for MANY.
Many does not mean all.
JOHN 3:5 Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he CANNOT enter into the kingdom of God.
Mark 5:1-9 Says that an evil spirit came and met Jesus that was inside of a man.
6When he saw Jesus from a distance, he ran and fell on his knees in front of him. 7He shouted at the top of his voice, "What do you want with me, Jesus, Son of the Most High God? Swear to God that you won't torture me!" 8For Jesus had said to him, "Come out of this man, you evil spirit!"
Now as you see was the man bowing or the evil spirit. We really can't say, because they both were bowing and we can't say which one was.
Question: If the man was bowing and proclaiming the right thing, why did Jesus say he has an evil spirit? What was the man doing wrong?
But you used the position of the phrase "is willing" out of place to determine it's value in interpretation.... That is what I was commenting on. If used in the right order it's value in interpretation changes.
Actually it does not.
1 timothy 2:4
who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
θέλει-mean is willing. Now as I read and study this word, it does not mean all.
When you are placing a word in a sentence you much have the correct understanding of the word and the words around it.
You can use the same word, and place it in another sentence, and it mean something different.
You have to read the sentence from left to right. Instead of me placing the word on the right, it should have been on the left, but I didn't want the person the read both of the words, only the one I provided in english ( so actually, I wanted the person to read the english word as if they would be reading it right to left, if that makes sense, since I take it, the person didn't know the other one.
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saying the torture part perhaps? 
