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The problem with the theory given in your link is this: in the book of Luke, which is supposed to be Mary's genealogy, it quotes Joseph as being the SON of Heli. Also if the genealogy of women just were not given at that time, why then does Luke 1:5-7 gives reference to Elizabeth's genealogy?
The link you provided does not satisfy me as a definitive answer. Isn't the word of God to be a truth throughout all ages. Therefore why would it be written to please man at a certain period of time rather than based on fact? Luke was not a Jew and would not have been held to those jewish rules. He also wrote the book many years after Jesus's life.
Man and woman were created in God's image. Man first, then woman....both in the image of God....
Not according to Paul. He writes that man was made in the image of God BUT woman were made in the glory of man. BUT is a word meaning "except" or "on the contrary" according to Webster's dictionary. Man was made in the image of God "on the contrary" woman were made in the glory of man.
For a Christian . . . it requires that everything be interpreted through the love and acceptance displayed by Jesus with the aid of the holy spirit, period. ANYTHING that is not compatible with that love and acceptance is being interpreted wrongly. If you cannot imagine our loving Jesus doing it . . . it is not to be accepted as an act of God.
Okay, use your method to interpret Judges 11:29-40. Explain the meaning of those passages and how they are compatible with that love and acceptance that Jesus taught.
Not according to Paul. He writes that man was made in the image of God BUT woman were made in the glory of man. BUT is a word meaning "except" or "on the contrary" according to Webster's dictionary. Man was made in the image of God "on the contrary" woman were made in the glory of man.
It's apples and oranges. There's no contradiction.
Genesis is about Creation, Corinthians about behavoir in the early church. If you can't discern between the two, I don't know what to tell you. But to the honest reader, there's no contradiction there.....regardless of how high an esteem you hold a man-made dictionary
Why bother explaining it, you just pulled it out of your ***. This is all just what you think the unprovable, untestable part of our world is like. You make assumptions where the answers cannot be found, and play on the fact that no one can prove you wrong. Isn't it presumptuous to draw conclusions to untestable hypotheses the way you do?
I can assure you . . . I pulled it out of no such place. I have studied most of the myths of humankind, ancient and modern philosophers, all of the scriptural works . . . whether banned from the canon or not . . . including the Quran (which is actually fairly inclusive of some of the banned books like the Gnostics). I've used my scientific training and mathematical skills to obtain a reading and mathematical understanding of the important empirical sciences and current findings, and I have waded through much of the mumbo-jumbo of the pseudo-sciences to achieve my synthesis.
That there is a scientifically supportable and explainable hypothesis that could underlie some of even the more ludicrous ancient interpretations might be disturbing to you . . . but its origin has nothing to do with my backside.
Edit to add: If I were presenting a hypothesis for testing . . . but I am not. I am merely presenting a scientifically supportable one based on extant scientific knowledge that does NOT contradict our known science and is plausible enough using the very same method of support given for the existence of dark energy and dark matter. . . . I am just adding the additional content necessary to explain how spiritual understanding acquired from scripture could be merged with it. You seem to want to ignore completely that we are equally a spiritual being not just a physical one . . . and that our spiritual evolution has had to come an equally long way from its earliest beginnings. You simply prefer to ignore it completely and deride its poorly evolved primitiveness.
Last edited by MysticPhD; 12-26-2008 at 09:28 PM..
Not according to Paul. He writes that man was made in the image of God BUT woman were made in the glory of man. BUT is a word meaning "except" or "on the contrary" according to Webster's dictionary. Man was made in the image of God "on the contrary" woman were made in the glory of man.
You simply have not accepted the fact that the majority of these writings were by men using THEIR primitive understanding of the otherwise inexplicable requirements to deny their own urges. Paul (and most of the men of the time . . . most notably Peter) had no respect for women as equals to men, period . . . only as temptations and breeders. It was the reason for banning from the bible the Gospel of Mary Magdalene and unscripturally maligning her by interpreting her as a prostitute (there is no explicit mention of her as being one). The simple unavoidable reality is that for a savage (and all animals) denying its inner urges seems completely incomprehensible . . . and for carnal humans of the time needed to be accompanied by fear of punishment or reward (by granting other wishes, etc.).
Anyone know of some contradictions in the Bible that bother them.
I for one don't understand why the Genealogies of Jesus in both Matthew and Luke end with Joseph instead of Mary. Since Joseph is not Jesus's father, aren't these genealogies derailed?
There are also separate accounts of where and when the wise men visited Jesus in Matthew and Luke.
in Gen it say In the Beginning God
created............In john it say all things were created by Him......and pointing at JESUS
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one of you Bible wizzzard tell me
