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moonbeam33 wrote: "The mere state of being homosexual is not a sin."
If the homosexual person is born again, washed in the blood of Jesus, then he or she will have God's grace to resist the sin of engaging in homosexual acts. The temptation may still be there, but God's grace is sufficient to overcome it.
But David seems to have TAKEN a few MEN on his own...
Nor is there ONE where your gittb ACTED against SSM or relationships..GAME OVER, illogical interpretation loses AGAIN!
I tell you, in that night there shall be two men in one bed; the one shall be taken, and the other shall be left.--U know the scripture---
ONE MUST HAVE BEEN SAVED and a CHRISTIAN...
Two men in bed does not mean homosexual perversion, no more than giving a man a kiss as Jesus described in Luke. What's more, the word "men" in the Bible oftentimes meant both men and women.
Two men in bed does not mean homosexual perversion, no more than giving a man a kiss as Jesus described in Luke. What's more, the word "men" in the Bible oftentimes meant both men and women.
Don't be obtuse, Men who lust after each other as with women, its cut and dry man. If you want to be gay and I assume you are homosexual at the level of twisting you are doing, just be gay and stop trying to make the bible say two men having sex is fine. Its absolutely not as far as the bible goes. Homosexual perversion in the bibles eyes is a redundant thing. Homosexuality as far as the bible goes is in and of itself perversion.
moonbeam33 wrote: "The mere state of being homosexual is not a sin."
If the homosexual person is born again, washed in the blood of Jesus, then he or she will have God's grace to resist the sin of engaging in homosexual acts. The temptation may still be there, but God's grace is sufficient to overcome it.
That is a theological argument and some religions do not believe in once saved. The fact is the bible condemns homosexuality. Just because they do not use the word which is a modern word for men having sex with men means nothing. True the bible does not speak of homosexuality much and never uses the word homosexual no surprise there it did not exist at the time, but when it does talk about it, it condemns it in the highest fashion.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10New International Version (NIV)
9 Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men[a] 10 nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God. Footnotes:
1 Corinthians 6:9 The words men who have sex with men translate two Greek words that refer to the passive and active participants in homosexual acts.
But David seems to have TAKEN a few MEN on his own...
Not that you can prove anyways. Such a relationship was stricted forbidden in Mosaic law so David would have been an outcast, not a praised warrior and eventual king.
Exactly. And that means that the lineage goes all the way back to one of those eight on the ark. Of course, not every child born to a homosexual will also be homosexual. That explains why only about two percent of the population are gay. I work with a gay person and her father is gay but her daughter is not. With all the mixing between the offspring of the eight, gay can be expected to show up far less frequently than one in eight.
God blessed King David with many women, but no men. Matter of fact, there isn't one case in the Bible of a homosexual relationship that God blessed, endorsed and/or approved of. Zero. The debate is over.
Not that you can prove anyways. Such a relationship was stricted forbidden in Mosaic law so David would have been an outcast, not a praised warrior and eventual king.
and included as a man of faith.
Do not be deceived Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have
sex with men nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit
the kingdom of God.
sex was intended between 1 man \ 1 woman who are m a r r i e d
" Do you not know that he who unites himself with a prostitute is one with her in body?
For it is said, 'The two will become one flesh' "
and who said 'The two will become one flesh'
“Haven’t you read,” he replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’ [a]
and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife,
and the two will become one flesh’ So they are no longer two, but one flesh." [b]
People have their own individual traits and characteristics. It's the Spirit and Soul that becomes One Flesh.
And what God unites, no man can separate.
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