The Phrase 'Word of God' and its usage in the New Testament. (sinners, mystic)
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No. And I said nothing about punishment. I said nothing more or less than I said. The word aion has a semantic range of meaning from limited duration to unending duration. Context determines the meaning.
And I said: When you expand the definition of a word to mean something it doesn't, then you not only change the meaning of the word; but the entire context in which it is used.
And I said: When you expand the definition of a word to mean something it doesn't, then you not only change the meaning of the word; but the entire context in which it is used.
And you failed to give an example to back up your claim. You simply made a unsupported assertion.
All right. As far as I'm concerned, this thread has gone on long enough and is now degenerating as threads inevitably do on this forum due to the usual people.
My main purpose for this thread, pointing out that the phrase 'the word of God' does not refer only to Jesus was demonstrated quite well, and no one can honestly deny that fact. I've no intention of continuing to reply to the disingenuous posts which the usual people are now throwing at the thread.
It was inevitable that the thread would turn to whether the Bible is the word of God. It is, but the usual people who deny that will continue to do so and I'll not spend any further time on them.
So I'm now off the thread. Let it go wherever it's going to go.
If you knew anything about the field of textual criticism you would not have made the claim that textual criticism is based on the belief that the originals were not significantly altered. It is well known that there are at least some 300,000 to 400,000 textual variants. But the great majority of these variants are completely meaningless. This was explained in post #53. The number of textual variants that are viable and have an impact on the text is quite small and the impact minor. While textual criticism is both an art and a science, it is not faith based. It is based on detailed examination of the available manuscripts. I already posted comments from some of the textual experts in post #53. And you are in no position to contradict them.
Textual criticism is irrelevant to the claim that the original message and teachings of Christ were altered to the politically preferred narrative. It does not look at what might be different from whatever the original intent was and it cannot deal with the selection bias that was BASED on promoting a consistent narrative. There is no way to know what the competing narratives were and which most accurately represented what Christ revealed because so many were culled out. The remaining ones were selected for a consistent narrative. Textual criticism simply looks for differences among the existing biased versions and can say nothing about what is or is not accurate regarding Christ's original revelations and teachings.
I twisted neither the meaning or the translation of 1 Corinthians 4:6. The translation I provided is the NASB's and it is a standard translation. And the point is quite simply as stated, don't go beyond what is written. Stick with what the scriptures say so that no one of you will become arrogant in behalf of one against the other. Or to put it another way, so you don't exalt yourself over others.
And what makes you think you can insert the word Ἄνδρες - 'men' into the verse when it's not there in the original?
Good question. I'd have to say that the translator I quoted put it into an obscure passage to clarigy its obvious meaning. Sorry about that.
Please show me one commentary that gives your out of context meaning to the passage.
I don't know how you can say that with a straight face. They are absolutely talking about textual variants and they state that they are talking about textual variants. That's what textual criticism is about. Identifying the variants with the goal of determining as nearly as possible the original text. I have to wonder if you even bothered to actually read their statements.
Silly I was talking about the ones I gave before you started in on the textual variance.
No, not aion. The word aion legitimately has within its semantic range of meaning anything from a limited period of time to an unending period. Context determines whether a limited or unlimited period in indicated.
Aion never means an unlimited duration. even the bible, your word of God tells us the aion has a beginning and an end. So are you going to believe your bible or not?
The writers of the Bible wrote under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit. We are not apostles. God is not communicating His word to us as He did with the apostles. The Bible preserves in writing what God inspired the Biblical writers to set down in writing.
Correct we are not apostles we are something greater for we are sons and daughter of God who are suppose to have the HS indwelling in us. Funny how you say that which dwells within cannot communicate with us as it did with the apostles or even with Moses and Elijah etc.
And I said: When you expand the definition of a word to mean something it doesn't, then you not only change the meaning of the word; but the entire context in which it is used.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Mike555
And you failed to give an example to back up your claim. You simply made a unsupported assertion.
It flew right over his head Jer, better break it down for him.
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