Question on Genesis 1 (translation, Old Testament, Biblical, Jews)
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Yet Genesis 1:1 states God created the heavens (the celestial bodies of which suns are part of) and the earth
The fourth day does not mean the sun was created at that time because Genesis 1:3 already tells us that there was light and before that the Bible starts off with Genesis 1:1 which tells us that the celestial bodies and earth were created. Additionally, the Hebrew word bara which means to create is used in Genesis 1:1. In contrast, the Hebrew word asah (found in the later verses which give some the impression that the sun, moon, etc were created at that time) does NOT mean to create but accomplish,appoint etc. As further support Job 37:9 states God swaddled the earth in thick gloom and clouds and that coincides with what science indicates was the condition of the early earth atmosphere. Thus, the sun, moon, stars etc would not have been visible but there would be light as indicated in Genesis 1:3. By "day 4" the sun, moon, stars,etc became visible. This would be in line with what science indicates about the earth's atmosphere evolving over a very long time, billion plus years, going from a thick methane haze and eventually clearing to reveal blue skies and the accompanying luminaries in the sky.
Sorry. This is more apologetic wriggling. You are describing how it looked from an earth shrouded in gloom and clouds (Job 37.9? "Out of the south comes whirlwind, and out of the north, cold."? You must have some other passage in mind.) and not as it actually was. But there was nobody around to see how it looked from the earth. The Bible (if it is telling us what God knew) should logically describe what actually happened at creation, not how it looked from the human point of view - when there were no humans around to view it.
You are simply doing more fiddling to try to get Genesis to fit what science tells us about the order in which things happened. As I see in all the links to articles trying to fiddle the meanings of the Bible text to make it say something different from what it does say - that the light and dark were separated and alternating and were called day and night. Morning and evening. And each day of creation is marked by these mornings and evenings.
It's as plain as a pikestaff but, because it makes no sense to have mornings and evenings before the sun was created, we get Bible apologists trying to reinterpret the Hebrew to make a 'day' mean something other than a day, or introduce the 'cloud -cover' excuse which, as I point out above, makes no sense from a book telling us what God knew.
Bite the bullet, folks: Genesis does not fit science. Assuming you don't reject science in favour of Myth (and if you do, you have no basis for arguing anything from scientifically validated evidence), accept that Genesis is not accurate, fact, History or science. It is a mythological story loosely based on the Mesopotamian stories of creation after the 1st millennium B.C.
Last edited by TRANSPONDER; 07-17-2015 at 03:46 AM..
You're wrong...The Same word is used in both verse 3 (גוַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים יְהִי אוֹר וַיְהִי אוֹר and verse 4 (.וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים יְהִי מְאֹרֹת בִּרְקִיעַ הַשָּׁמַיִם לְהַבְדִּיל בֵּין הַיּוֹם וּבֵין הַלָּיְלָה וְהָיוּ לְאֹתֹת וּלְמוֹעֲדִים וּלְיָמִים וְשָׁנִים...The first one means light and the latter means lights...
It is actually M'Orot...
BTW...G-d is light is not from the OT it is from the NT so it would be in Greek...Not Hebrew...
So...There ya go...
maor...Does not mean an object that emits light...Where in the world do you get this stuff from?...
Richard. I did not say that the word for light in verse 3 and 4 were different they are the same. In Strong's dictionary. The word is ore number h216. In verse 14 the word is different, the word is maor and plural the word is maorot and the number is H3974. So this is where I get this stuff. It's funny to me that a different word supposedly meaning the same thing is not the same word. And in verse 14 the word maor means light as a element.
Others around here tend to not be as snippy and arrogant. He is constantly telling me I'm stupid, and others their religion is dumb and that Christians in general are idiots.
Yes, I am surprised he is still allowed to post here.
Richard. I did not say that the word for light in verse 3 and 4 were different they are the same. In Strong's dictionary. The word is ore number h216. In verse 14 the word is different, the word is maor and plural the word is maorot and the number is H3974. So this is where I get this stuff. It's funny to me that a different word supposedly meaning the same thing is not the same word. And in verse 14 the word maor means light as a element.
Born-again Jerry
No...Orot is plural for light and the prefixed mem means "from"...Strong's may not be accurate, try a Hebrew concordance that might not be biased in it's meanings...There are a few single letter prefixes in Hebrew that imply certain things, like the vav prefixed to a word means "and"... Basically it is saying "from the light [that He had created on day 1] in the firmament to separate dray and night [this was the purpose of the light that He had created on day 1]..."...
Richard. I did not say that the word for light in verse 3 and 4 were different they are the same. In Strong's dictionary. The word is ore number h216. In verse 14 the word is different, the word is maor and plural the word is maorot and the number is H3974. So this is where I get this stuff. It's funny to me that a different word supposedly meaning the same thing is not the same word. And in verse 14 the word maor means light as a element.
Born-again Jerry
But doesn't that leave us with the same problem? Light-as an element made by God to put on a show of night and day; evening and morning, just as it is now with the sun and earth's rotation doing it, but before the sun was made. It makes no sense.
Yes, I am surprised he is still allowed to post here.
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and verse 4 (.וַיֹּאמֶר אֱלֹהִים יְהִי מְאֹרֹת בִּרְקִיעַ הַשָּׁמַיִם לְהַבְדִּיל בֵּין הַיּוֹם וּבֵין הַלָּיְלָה וְהָיוּ לְאֹתֹת וּלְמוֹעֲדִים וּלְיָמִים וְשָׁנִים
