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It wasn't about craving sex? But, apparently, that is all you have on your mind as a fundamentalist. Rather, it was about harming or abusing people, and holding them hostage; possibly, even that of harming or abusing yourself in the process.
And your evidence for this claim is? I have the Word of God to back me up. What do you have? Of course, the crack about craving sex on my mind is just another pathetic cheap shot. Sad that you have to resort to such tactics.
It wasn't about craving sex? But, apparently, that is all you have on your mind as a fundamentalist. Rather, it was about harming or abusing people, and holding them hostage; possibly, even that of harming or abusing yourself in the process.
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Originally Posted by jeffbase40
And your evidence for this claim is? I have the Word of God to back me up. What do you have? Of course, the crack about craving sex on my mind is just another pathetic cheap shot. Sad that you have to resort to such tactics.
I have the ability to comprehend language and the English word "homosexual" is nowhere accurate. Effeminate men are associated with having a feminine nature, men who are not brutal in behavior or mannerism's. What you see are brutal men who ravage and beat people down in order to exhibit their dominance.
It's like the eleven men that I ran into who were raping two-fifteen year old girls. I can guarantee you that I was not a spineless jelly-fish who stood there watching or praying. Do you honestly believe that the whole town came out to watch-a-sex-act? Women and children? You should really pull your head out ...of the gutter!
We have addressed this many times. Jesus defined marriage as only between a man and a woman by referencing an OT passage. He wasn't just quoting a verse. He was agreeing with the verse. If God intended for us to have same sex relations then Jesus would have spoken in more broad terms.
Baloney! While the scripture you're referring to has NOTHING to do with who can and who cannot marry (Jesus was merely responding to a question asked of Him about divorce), Jesus had ample opportunity during His ministry to address homosexuality IF it had been an issue. Jesus DID address adultery. The truth is that Jesus said zilch, zero, nada, NOTHING about homosexuality. This is why you must clutch at straws, Jeff, and add to the 'divorce' scripture in your feeble attempt to try and convince us that Jesus did, in fact, address homosexuality. He DIDN'T!
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Originally Posted by jeffbase40
Then the argument that Sodom was not destroyed because of sex with angels does not hold water either. The angels didn't arrive until after God had already decided to destroy the city.
Huh? Did you just shoot yourself in the foot?
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Originally Posted by jeffbase40
The fact that they immediately craved raping a male visitor tells me that there was so much same sex perversion and activity going on that they craved more or even worse, someone new.
Again ...baloney! How come you're setting yourself up for ridicule, Jeff? You must know that you're going to be called out for it. Ezekiel (16:49-50) referred to the people of Sodom as being arrogant, showing indifference toward the poor and the needy and their inhospitable treatment (backed up by Jesus in Matthew 10:14-15) toward strangers or visitors. The 'homosexual' spin that you and yours continually place on the story of Sodom is tantamount to lying - no ifs, ands or buts. And ...lying is an abomination to the Lord (Proverbs 12:22). How do you feel, Jeff, when you are referred to (by the Bible) as an 'abomination' when you persist in lying? How do you think a gay person feels when you refer to them as an 'abomination'?
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Originally Posted by jeffbase40
1 Timothy 1:10 is crystal clear that homosexuality a sin. Nothing about being in the context of pagan worship.
'Crystal clear', no less? Well, let's see ...this is 1 Timothy 1:10-11 from the King James Bible:
10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine; 11 According to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which was committed to my trust.
Where is it 'crystal clear' from the above KJV version of 1 Timothy 1:10-11 that homosexuality is a sin? Where? Is 'for them that defile themselves with mankind' speaking of homosexuality? Or, could it be 'menstealers', perhaps? Is there anything in those two terms that would cause 'homosexuality' to jump out at us? If it were me reading that scripture 'as is' I not only would not know what the heck it was talking about but, in truth, I wouldn't even care. It's an ancient piece of text - and cryptic to boot - and has no place in modern society. That you, Jeff, would be attempting to 'make your case' by using such as the above in your condemnation of homosexuality is most telling. In truth - come on, 'fess up - you have no more idea as to what that scripture means than the rest of us, do you?
Yes, I think it could be safely assumed that there has been some underhanded tampering having occurred by some of the later Bible authors! Whenever the words 'homosexual' or 'homosexuality' actually appear in print in the Bible then we must, in all good conscience, question where the authors of these Bibles arrived at these terms. And then, of course, we also need to be mindful that, whoever might be on that list, the author of 1 Timothy (Paul) is yet again being exalted to the position of, and actually being given the authority of ...God. In the golden, olden days such a thing would have been referred to as 'blasphemy'.
By the way, Jeff, while you continually state that you've answered my question, a question asked of you and others many times, you have done no such thing. Another lie? Another 'abomination' in the eyes of the Lord? My question: where in the Bible is same gender sex practice mentioned that DOES NOT reference idolatry and temple prostitution? There are so few references to same gender sex practice in the ENTIRE Bible that it should be an absolutely easy assignment for you and others to come up with a satisfactory answer to my question. And yet ...you - and they - have not done so. Why not?
And your evidence for this claim is? I have the Word of God to back me up. What do you have? Of course, the crack about craving sex on my mind is just another pathetic cheap shot. Sad that you have to resort to such tactics.
Yet sex is the primary target for your posts, not accuracy of the Bible, not cultural surroundings of Scripture writing. It is SEX, SEX, SEX. Leading many of us to believe you have sexual inadequacies. And because it is so frequently in regard to homosexuality, leading me to think----oh, I can't say that anymore, so I won't.
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