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ok, i admit that i have been following the goings-on here from afar but i just couldn't stay away from all the pain y'all are inflicting on one another when i saw this.
ok, so you ask "Would the god you worship send you to hell if you killed a practicing homosexual?" to which i ask these questions:
was it a premeditated act?
was it done in self-defense?
was it caused by an unfortunate series of events or by accident?
I truly hope, from the bottom of my heathen heart, that the lack of responses from our resident fundies means they are in deep consideration -- engaging their hearts and spirit, as well as their minds.
Hey Saan, if you kill a practicing homosexual would god be happy about that and not send you to hell for killing a person?
It does say they need to be killed, right?
Quote:
Originally Posted by jeffbase40
Good grief, you people just won't give up that argument. Jesus fulfilled the OT law, making it null and void. We are not put to death for our sins because Christ's death paid that penalty. Now that doesn't mean that the once punishable action is now suddenly good and moral in the eyes of God. Same thing with adultry. We don't call for the death of people who cheat on their spouses yet it was in Leviticus as well.
Is this ^^^ also the answer to my question to you in Post 5925, Jeff?
Asking the question about Leviticus 20:13 is not 'an argument' but a question. You were asked several times during the course of this hugely lengthy thread whether homosexuals (for those who believe Leviticus 20:13 addresses homosexuality) should be put to death as per the passage. That's it. It's a question. Where do you get 'argument' from?
You say above that Jesus fulfilled the Old Testament law, making it null and void. Would you (please) present a New Testament scripture where this is mentioned? Where, for instance, do we find a passage of scripture that states, "The first part of Leviticus 20:13 will stand for eternity but the second part concerning the death of those mentioned in the passage is now null and void due to Jesus having paid this penalty" ...?
Please note, Jeff, that this IS a question and NOT 'an argument'.
Jesus, the one you quote as having changed 'the law' doesn't appear to agree with you. According to Jesus (NT) 'the law' still stands 'until heaven and earth disappear'. The last time I checked, both heaven and earth were still here. What DID disappear, however, through the death and resurrection of Jesus, was the sacrificial system of atonement. 'Jesus' replaced the sacrificial system. Moreover, you and others use the term, "Christians are now under the new covenant of grace" as if this is a new thing. Not true. According to the Bible (the apparent source for information for this thread, though I sometimes wonder ) no one was ever saved by their works ...they were under grace, or, in other words, they received favor from God. Why do Christians persist in this 'we are now saved by grace through faith' piece of fiction?
Anyway, PLEASE respond once and for all - Jeff, anyone - as to WHY many Christians only believe HALF of Leviticus 20:13 rather than the passage in its entirety. Thank you.
Yep and the Leviticus verses relate to the Romans passage which is written to the ROMAN CHURCH (which is said to be in Babylon) and is about there being no difference between the Jew and gentile (Christian) they are both of the household of God and that relates to passages in revelation about the system which commits fornication and Gods people are to come out of it
The scriptures are not written to individuals, they are to ‘the people of God’ and are telling THEM things
You DO realize, do you not, that the Bible term 'fornication' is more frequently used in a symbolic manner rather than in its ordinary sense? It's rather understandable that 'sex' is the first thing that is conjured up into the minds of many since we live in a society where 'sex' is a obsession as well as a commercial commodity. Anyway, it (fornication) in the Bible oftentimes refers to a forsaking of God or a following after idols ( Isaiah 1:2 ; Jeremiah 2:20 ; Ezek. 16; Hosea 1:2 ; 2:1-5 ; Jeremiah 3:8 Jeremiah 3:9).
How many here can honestly tell the difference between the various definitions of 'fornication' in the bible?
You DO realize, do you not, that the Bible term 'fornication' is more frequently used in a symbolic manner rather than in its ordinary sense? It's rather understandable that 'sex' is the first thing that is conjured up into the minds of many since we live in a society where 'sex' is a obsession as well as a commercial commodity. Anyway, it (fornication) in the Bible oftentimes refers to a forsaking of God or a following after idols ( Isaiah 1:2 ; Jeremiah 2:20 ; Ezek. 16; Hosea 1:2 ; 2:1-5 ; Jeremiah 3:8 Jeremiah 3:9).
How many here can honestly tell the difference between the various definitions of 'fornication' in the bible?
Yes, that is what I am saying..... the scriptures are not about individuals it is about the nation/s
The fornication God is against is ‘his’ people going after other ‘gods’ and using his name to do it
Apparently, this also applies to the LGBT community as well. Or, any other group that follows him.
Quote:
Originally Posted by SAAN
Too bad the LGBTQRSTUV community doesn't follow him, because they would repent of their sin of sexual immortality if they did.
Sexual immortality ...what's that?
Yes, obviously I knew what you meant to say. But, be careful since I'm sure that 'sexual immortality' as an 'everlasting punishment' would have more and more confused Christians (heaps of them already!) wondering which side to bat for ...
Incidentally, since when was not being heterosexual a sin needed to be repented of?
Quote:
Originally Posted by SAAN
And if you want to use the argument of silence that Jesus didnt talk about homosexuality, he didnt need to, as it was basic to them back then that it is wrong since they knew the Torah Jesus was teaching from, as STOP at a STOP sign is to us and knowing the meaning of it.
'They' certainly knew the Torah regarding 'adultery' but that didn't stop Jesus from speaking of it.
Hey Saan, if you kill a practicing homosexual would god be happy about that and not send you to hell for killing a person?
It does say they need to be killed, right?
Quote:
Originally Posted by SAAN
They are under Grace to repent of that, now if they dont repent of it, thats between them and Jesus on judgement day.
Good comeback, SAAN. Well, truthfully ...it really wasn't that good. But, it was an expected response from those who have no real answer to the question. You didn't disappoint.
Quote:
Originally Posted by The Last Amalekite 1Sam15
Lets use another argument that has come on here. That was just for Israel only, so does that mean Love One Another was for Israel only too?
Is it 'all or nothing' for you, SAAN? It's good to have a knowledge of the scriptures since they very often come under discussion, especially on forums such as this one. But, it's also healthy to think critically and to apply at least a touch of (God-given) intellectual ability to the stuff we're reading. Understand?
I guess old Paul Forgot that his Jesus did eat with those people...
Quote:
Originally Posted by SAAN
What does Paul's teaching matter yo you, you dont even believe in the back half of the book anyways, so who are you to quote Paul when you reject and dont understand anything past the book of Malachi.
That's a red herring. What does it matter what Richard1965 believes? He was merely pointing out a discrepancy between the teaching of Jesus and the teaching of Paul.
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) no one was ever saved by their works ...they were under grace, or, in other words, they received favor from God. Why do Christians persist in this 'we are now saved by grace through faith' piece of fiction? 
