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Old 12-07-2010, 09:42 AM
 
Location: Toronto, Ontario, Canada
3,153 posts, read 3,408,708 times
Reputation: 259

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Campbell34 View Post
Most Bibles support the teaching of eternal torment.
You didn't open this link did you.
It demonstrates how very wrong you are!

Many Bibles that do not teach eternal torment, besides the Concordant Literal Translation.
An Analytical Study of Words - Undivided Version

 
Old 12-07-2010, 10:28 PM
 
7,628 posts, read 10,973,476 times
Reputation: 498
Quote:
Originally Posted by rodgertutt View Post
Here is a snippet from John Hanson's
BIBLE THREATENINGS EXPLAINED – John Wesley Hanson
under THE STRAIT GATE

Every careful reader will see that the language is entirely confined to the present.
"Lord, are there few that be 'saved'?" The literal rendering is: "Are those being saved few?"

The question relates entirely to the number then accepting Christianity.

"Are there few that are now being saved?" is the literal rendering of the question; From what? Not from endless torment, but from certain evil consequences in this world.

Whoever refers the language to the final condition of the human race must admit that only a few will ever be holy and happy, while the great multitude will be lost. It has no such application, but teaches that at the time Jesus spoke the many went wrong, while only the few chose the way of life.

The rest of John's exposition can be read here
Bible Threatenings Explained
SCROLL DOWN AND CLICK ON STRAIT GATE



Absolute nonsense. The only way you could walk away with such an understanding, is if you got that from a (CULT TRANSLATION).

The New International Version clearly does not support such a view.

Matthew 7:13,14 "Enter through the narrow gate. For wide is the gate and broad is the road that leads to destruction, (AND MANY ENTER THROUGH IT.) 14. But small is the gate and narrow the road that leads to life, (AND ONLY A FEW FIND IT.)

It's obvious, Christ was not speaking about the locals here. He is speaking of the entire creation. How could you possible miss that? Talk about spiritual blindness.

To suggest that Jesus was only speaking about those around Him or those not accepting Him at that time, is a belief without foundation. Do you really think that was all Christ was worried about, the local few? Truly, you have to stamp on God's Word and spit on it. To believe what you do. It's just a total denial of what Jesus said. God makes it so plain and it appears to me, your personal views or your pushed doctrinal beliefs are of greater importance, then Christ clear teachings.
 
Old 12-07-2010, 10:51 PM
 
2,526 posts, read 2,938,910 times
Reputation: 336
Quote:
Originally Posted by Campbell34 View Post
The New International Version clearly does not support such a view.
I'm not sure that really matters. The NIV appears to have it's own set of problems...

Here are a few websites that take issue with not only the translation itself, but with those on the translating committees:

Homosexuals On the NIV Translating Committee

Sodomy and the NIV

Dr. Marten Woudstra, Sodomite/Homosexual, Chairman NIV OT Committee

The New International Version - NIV
 
Old 12-08-2010, 01:52 AM
 
7,628 posts, read 10,973,476 times
Reputation: 498
Quote:
Originally Posted by AlabamaStorm View Post
I'm not sure that really matters. The NIV appears to have it's own set of problems...

Here are a few websites that take issue with not only the translation itself, but with those on the translating committees:

Homosexuals On the NIV Translating Committee

Sodomy and the NIV

Dr. Marten Woudstra, Sodomite/Homosexual, Chairman NIV OT Committee

The New International Version - NIV
I used the NIV translation only because it would be considered a more liberal translation by the hard liners. Yet, if even such a liberal translation makes clear what Jesus was speaking about. How much more clearer would one of the more accepted translations be?
 
Old 12-08-2010, 04:47 AM
 
Location: Toronto, Ontario, Canada
3,153 posts, read 3,408,708 times
Reputation: 259
Lightbulb In Jesus' lifetime He went only to the Jews

Quote:
Originally Posted by Campbell34 View Post
Do you really think that was all Christ was worried about, the local few?
Jesus was talking about the Jews, and He wasn't worried.
He knew what was going to happen.

It is true that Jesus said “narrow is the way, and few there will be that find it.” But consider the context. During Jesus’ earthly ministry He also said that He came only to the sheep of Israel … not to the Gentiles. Jesus’ earthly agenda was to prepare His people (Israel) for the restoration of the kingdom upon the earth. And for this, the people needed “superabounding righteousness” … they needed to “be perfect as your Heavenly Father is perfect” (Matt 5:48).

Before Jesus’ earthly ministry was concluded, and as He set forth all of the kingdom conditions, His disciples asked him, “Who consequently can be saved?” (Matt 19:25). Jesus response: “With men this is impossible, yet with God all is possible.” Narrow is the way for this kind of righteousness being required. So Israel was set aside (temporarily, not permanently – see Romans 11:25-26) until the millenial age that follows the one we are in right now.

But thru Paul, God began to do a new thing. Paul begins to talk about the body of Christ … justification (not just pardon) … grace alone (not grace + works). If left to men to respond with obedience (as was the call in that day) who could be saved? But all is possible with God, and that is what Paul tells us about.

Jesus also said that many are called, but few are chosen Matthew 22:14. It is the conclusion to a parable Jesus is tellings that concerns the kingdom. Like I said before, in Jesus' lifetime He went only to the Jews ... the "sheep of Israel." And this parable is intended to explain that while all of Israel was called, only SOME were fit to enter the wedding festivities. Most within Israel had rejected the King, and could not enter the feast ... they were not chosen. This rejection by the Jews continues, and much later Paul would explain that this "callousness" had come upon Israel until the full complement of the nations may enter (i.e. the body of Christ).

The "many are called and few are chosen" pertains to Israel, in the day that Jesus was proclaiming the kingdom to be established upon the earth. When this was rejected, Israel was temporarily set aside as the body of Christ is gathered (as in this present day) until the millenium.

But none of this can take away from the final climax of human history, when God becomes All in all ... when as in Adam all are dying, thus also in Christ shall all be made alive ... yet each in his own class. (1 Corinthians 15:20-28)

Those that use the "many are called but few are chosen" to say that only SOME will be saved are taking the parable out of context. It is true that only SOME were chosen in that day during which Jesus spoke, but once God's plan for all mankind is fully revealed ... after the death and resurrection of Christ and after the subsequent revelations made to the apostle Paul following the rejection of the kingdom message by Israel ... we see that ALL mankind will be saved.

God wills that all mankind be saved (1 Timothy 2:4)

God is operating all in accord with the counsel of His will (Ephesians 1:11)

As in Adam all are dying; thus also in Christ will all be made alive (1 Corinthians 15:22)
 
Old 12-08-2010, 05:51 AM
 
Location: Somewhere
6,370 posts, read 7,034,427 times
Reputation: 594
Quote:
Originally Posted by Campbell34 View Post
I believe that God is Alknowing.
Ok, so at this point we have established that you believe God:

1.) Doesn't get what He desires
2.) Is Almighty
3.) Is Alknowing.

So why do you believe if God is Almighty and Alknowing that He doesn't have the might or knowledge to get everything He desires?
 
Old 12-08-2010, 06:00 AM
 
Location: Somewhere
6,370 posts, read 7,034,427 times
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Finn_Jarber View Post
...
There is a problem with clinging to one verse in one book. If you study one word in one verse, and come to your conclusion, but if your conclusion conflicts other verses in the Bible which talk about the same message, then your conclusion is incorrect. This is why it is important to compare scripture to scripture. It confirms what is true.
Finn_Jarber, my point is that we are to cling to EVERY VERSE and EVERY Word of God.

Mat 4:4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.

So again, here is the verse in Matthew:

Mat 7:14 how strait is the gate, and compressed the way that is leading to the life, and few are those finding it!

So if I'm clinging to every word of God then I cannot (nor do I have the boldness) to say that Jesus MEANT to say otherwise than what He said. The word for 'finding" is PRESENT Tense.

Now to the main point. Can you agree that the word for "finding" in Matthew 7:14 is indeed PRESENT Tense. Regardless of what ANY other scripture says, do you AFFIRM that in Matthew 7:14 the Greek word translated as "find" or "finding" was spoken in the PRESENT Tense?
 
Old 12-08-2010, 06:35 AM
 
Location: Florida
76,971 posts, read 47,659,569 times
Reputation: 14806
Quote:
Originally Posted by trettep View Post
Finn_Jarber, my point is that we are to cling to EVERY VERSE and EVERY Word of God.
You don't, and you just proved it again. You cling to one, and disregard the others.

Hey, whatever gets you through the night....

Have a good one.
 
Old 12-08-2010, 06:39 AM
 
Location: Toronto, Ontario, Canada
3,153 posts, read 3,408,708 times
Reputation: 259
Question Finn, why are you ignoring trettep's question?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Finn_Jarber View Post
You don't, and you just proved it again. You cling to one, and disregard the others.

Hey, whatever gets you through the night....

Have a good one.
Finn, why are you ignoring trettep's question?

Originally Posted by trettep
Quote:
Now to the main point. Can you agree that the word for "finding" in Matthew 7:14 is indeed PRESENT Tense. Regardless of what ANY other scripture says, do you AFFIRM that in Matthew 7:14 the Greek word translated as "find" or "finding" was spoken in the PRESENT Tense?
 
Old 12-08-2010, 06:59 AM
 
2,526 posts, read 2,938,910 times
Reputation: 336
Quote:
Originally Posted by Campbell34 View Post
I used the NIV translation only because it would be considered a more liberal translation by the hard liners. Yet, if even such a liberal translation makes clear what Jesus was speaking about. How much more clearer would one of the more accepted translations be?
But why use a translation that you know dishonors Christ? And by those whom God has "given up" to their own desires?

Rom 1:24 Wherefore also God did give them up, in the desires of their hearts, to uncleanness, to dishonour their bodies among themselves;

Like Rodger, I also use Young's Literal Translation (YLT) because I know that translation will put the text into English as near as possible as that of a good Greek/English interlinear. It's also a translation by a man that made every effort to honor and glorify God through Christ. I don't think the NIV can make that claim.
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