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Vizio Rev. 1:8 is referring to 'God' because of the distinction in, verse 4 from Lord God, who is and was and is to come….His throne, and from Jesus Christ.
Really? Did God die? Later on in the same chapter, the person speaking says he was dead and is alive. Just curious how you spin that one.
I have already covered what 'through Him' means in the OP.
That passage, Phil 2:5-9 TELLS you why Jesus was exalted. It also tells you that Jesus Christ existed in the form of God which means that He was God.
In His high priestly prayer (john 17), Jesus asked the Father to glorify Him with the glory that He had had with the Father before the world was (in eternity past). Jesus had veiled His glory when He incarnated. And now, about to complete His mission with regard to the First Advent, He prayed to the Father that He might be glorified.
Now again, this thread is not intended as a debate. If you choose not to acknowledge what the passages say concerning the deity of Jesus Christ, that is your affair.
No one as yet who denies the deity of Christ has actually addressed the question I asked, except for one person who tried to explain it away as a matter of interpretation.
Nope...You still haven't proved it from a Hebraic mindset...
Obviously, this question is directed at those who claim to be believers in Jesus Christ, but who deny that He is God. Jesus Christ is both God and man. The Word became man. John 1:1-3 compared with John 1:14
Mike the 'Word' at verse 14 is a person but why do you assume the 'Word' of John 1:1 is also a person? Is that really the case?
The Trinitarian argument appears to be reasonable on the surface, especially to those who support it.
But it is based on a single-verse or two, which I have been informed on many occasions – is unreliable!
That is an ignorant statement, and is not true.
Quote:
"You cannot build a doctrine on a few verses of Scripture."
A doctrine is established on all available Scripture pertaining to a subject.
Last edited by Michael Way; 11-17-2012 at 04:22 PM..
So Jesus is claiming to be God.....and Jesus died and rose again.
Hmm.....guess that answers the silly claim that Jesus never claimed to be God.
I don’t follow you. Care to explain and cite some verses?
Rev. 1:8 refers to ‘God’ because of the distinction in, v. 4 from Him who is and was and is to come….His throne, and from Jesus Christ.
The “who is, and who was and who is to come” is clearly identified from the context. Rev. 1:4 and 5 reads:
Quote:
“Grace to you and peace from him who is and who was and who is to come, and from the seven spirits who are before his throne, AND from Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth. To him who loves us and freed us from our sins by his blood,
The separation between “the one who was, is and is to come” and Jesus Christ can be clearly seen. The one “who is, and who was and who is to come” is 'God'. I don't believe Jesus is 'God'. And Jesus Christ is speaking in Rev. 1:18.
"You cannot build a doctrine on a few verses of Scripture."
But those who oppose the truth can build a doctrine on a few words of few verses ... words like "all" and "desire"
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