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I explain those scriptures and asked you questions, you refuse to explain and ignored the questions, I am willing to discuss you don't seem willing. oh well
You didn't explain anything. All you did was ignore the plain fact that both passages state that Jesus was God and became man.
Don't talk to me about context. Psalm 82 is about the divine council and Jesus was quoting Psalm 82. The divine council refers to angelic beings - elohim. In Psalm 89 the divine council - the assembly of the holy ones is 'in the sky.'' Jewish judges were not in the heavens. God's divine council is in the heavens, not on earth. What Psalms 82 and 89 describe, as with Job 38:7, is a group of heavenly sons of God. Not Jewish leaders. Jesus did not call the Jewish leaders elohim. And yes, the word of God came to the divine council.
The English Standard Version correctly translates Psalm 82:1.
Psalm 82:1 God has taken his place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:
Sorry, Mike, Psalms 82 is not referring to the Devine council...
Both John and Paul explicitly state that Jesus was God and became man.
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. . . 14] And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us.
Philippians 2:5 Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6] who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7] but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. 8] Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
God became man.
No, as Christians we are to have the same mental attitude as Christ. Christ did not consider equality with God as something to strive for.
"If anyone acknowledges that Jesus is the Son of God, God lives in them and they in God."-1 john 4:15
John 1:1 in the Sahedic translation can be rendered and "a god was the word." It's not polytheism because the understanding is Jesus is divine. But viewing Scripture through a modern day Trinitarian eye you can interpret Scripture a number of ways. Divine/Divinity can then be taking to a whole new level, for example, that Jesus is God.
Again, both John 1:1 compared with John 1:14, and Philippians 2:5-8 plainly state that Jesus is both God and man. Something you are trying desperately to deny.
And you understand nothing about the Trinitarian teaching. Of course Jesus is not the Father. But he is just as much God as the Father is. The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are distinct from one another but they are united as one by means of their essence or attributes. They all mutually indwell or interpenatrate each other to the extent that though they are three distinct persons, they exist as one Being.
So, what if G-d tells you to do something and then Jesus comes along and tells you to do something different, countermanding G-d’s order, who’s order takes precedence?...
Last edited by Richard1965; 09-26-2021 at 01:42 PM..
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